[moonhawk]

If she is “Full of Grace” as the Bible says, how can she have sin?

[SkyDancer]

Because all have sinned and fall short of the Glory of God. Mary herself said she needs a Savior - again: Luke 1:46,47

Mary admits her estate as the handmaiden of God and not "Mother of God". Admiting her estate as a handmaiden because God used her instrumentally as a vessel to conceive the Lord Jesus Christ. By Mary s own words, she removes any idea of pre-emanance so as not to assume exaltation above God s calling upon her life. "For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed" [Luke 1:48]. "

[Secret Agent Man]

How? Easy. SHE WAS FULL OF GRACE BECAUSE JESUS WAS INCARNATE IN HER.

[JPII Be Not Afraid]

She doesn’t have sin. She seeks a savior because of her humility.

[metmom]

If she is “Full of Grace” as the Bible says, how can she have sin?

Because grace only happens in the presence of sin.

Romans 5:20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more,

If there's no sin, there's no need for grace.

[ravenwolf]

If she is “Full of Grace” as the Bible says, how can she have sin?.........

She had no sin and therefore found favor in Gods eyes.