If she is “Full of Grace” as the Bible says, how can she have sin?.........
She had no sin and therefore found favor in Gods eyes.
If Mary had no sin, she did not need a Savior.
However, if she experienced God's grace, that means conclusively, that she was a sinner as only sinners can experience grace. Grace only kicks in in the presence of sin.
Romans 5:20 Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more,
If she were sinless, she would not be *favored* by God, she would be getting what she deserved, which is NOT grace, it's justice.
Simple.
I am a sinner. 'Grace' is what has been given to me because I readily accept the fact that I am a sinner and cannot do anything to change that fact.
Grace given to me in no way changes me to being sinless; just as FULL of grace does not mean that Mary was sinless, either.
To assume that Full of GRACE means sinless says that the bible is WRONG when it states, "ALL have sinned and come short of the glory of GOD."