Posted on 06/06/2019 7:17:37 PM PDT by marshmallow
So?
That still does not tell us what He would have said in Aramaic based on the Greek.
It would be pure assumption on anyone’s part.
Just as a side note to this discussion, that I find very interesting, recently, I was quite surprised when I learned about a large and growing number of Christians who really do not accept the Pauline Epistles as Scripture, or try to follow his teachings.
If you do a youtube search for 'Jesus vs. Paul' (without the quotes, as set up below), and skim through and listen to many of the resultant youtubes from the search (such as the ones posted by "Hugh Whitmore"), you will find posts from many Christians who do not accept Paul as an inspired Apostle. (Not trying to convince or influence anyone relating to that, but I just found it very interesting.) For anyone else who might be interested in hearing some of their unusual takes on this, here's that youtube search:
What do you mean would have said? he did say it, John 1:42.
the Greek writers had no intention of deceiving any one so they
used the aramaic word cephas so people would know exactly what Jesus
said.
You make a good point about the Pauline scriptures.
1 Corinthians 9:2 even though I may not be an apostle
to othrers I am to you.
2 tim 2:15, you know that all those in the province of Asis
has deserted me.
Paul does seem to have many problems with the churches,
in Paul’s letter to the church at ephesis he tells them he is
an apostle.
But in rev
the letter to that church commends them for recognizing
those who say they are apostles but are not, Paul is the
only one on record who tells them he is an apostle.
So I am kind of confused how Paul fits in.
Well; that angel that had John WRITE to the seven Catholic churches in ASIA in Revelation's first three chapters...
. . . and my understanding is that the Greek, at least, is better translated “Daddy” than “Father."
Is better translated as daddy.
________________________________
That could very well be.
No I don’t, tell me about it.
Chapter and verse?
But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, His own special people, that you may proclaim the praises of Him who called you out of darkness into His marvelous light…
—I Peter 2:9Jesus took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it and gave it to his disciples, saying, “Take and eat; this is my body.” Then he took a cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
—Matthew 26:26-28For my flesh is real food and my blood is real drink. Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood remains in me, and I in them.
—John 6:55
Jesus spent three years teaching His Disciples how he wanted to build His Church. On Pentecost they were empowered by the Holy Spirit and did spread the Gospel throughout the known world with the formation of Christian churches wherever they were.
Only in a couple specific instances.
Outside pf that, NO ONE knows what was said in Aramaic when the NT was written down in Greek.
And speculation does no good as it’s just opinion.
It says nothing about the Triune God.
They make no mention of the Father or the Holy Spirit.
Yep, that is what it says.
God being the three-in-one comes first in the natural order of things. Jesus was present at creation, and the Holy Spirit is mentioned in the Old Testament. God has always been triune. Ergo, at communion, we partake of the triune God.
Brother or "Brat" we use just for monks or novitiates - sometimes even if they are priests
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