[af_vet_1981]

Using your game

Not a game; an honest question that was defaulted on.

Presumption that all of the ECFs spoke Greek.

Because the Early Church Fathers who used Koine Greek were the most likely to understand the holy scriptures correctly.

Do you understand the English sentence structure and meaning here ? It does not presume all the Early Church Fathers (ECFs) used Koine Greek, although I have not found one ECF yet who did not, but that those ECFs who used Koine Greek were the most likely to understand the holy scriptures correctly.

The first language of the universal Church was Greek, the language of the New Testament. All of the Early Church Fathers, from all parts of the Christian world, continued to write in Greek until about 200 when Tertullian, a North African theologian, wrote a treatise in Latin. From then on, Latin gradually became the language of the Western Fathers of the Church. In the Eastern half of the Mediterranean world, many continued to write in Greek, especially those in the urban areas controlled by the Byzantine Empire. In rural localities and territory outside the empire, some Christian authors (e.g., St. Ephrem) began to write in local vernaculars such as Syriac-Aramaic, a dialect of the language spoken by Christ. This wonderful diversity of culture and location makes it that much clearer that, whenever the Fathers teach the same doctrine or describe the same liturgical practice, they are witnessing to something that came not from them, but to them–the apostolic Tradition.

Even the Latin Tertullian also knew Greek, having written books in it.

[ealgeone]

Using your game Not a game; an honest question that was defaulted on.

Nope. You asserted...If the KJV translation was incorrect, the Protestants and Fundamentalists had a faulty English translation for almost four hundred years.

My counter to that was to make the same case against the Vulgate....an even greater time span of error and with far more theological consequences.

>>Using your game we can make a case that the official translation of the RCC has been in error since the time of Jerome.<<

Do you understand the English sentence structure and meaning here ? Yep.

It does not presume all the Early Church Fathers (ECFs) used Koine Greek, although I have not found one ECF yet who did not, but that those ECFs who used Koine Greek were the most likely to understand the holy scriptures correctly.

Now we have to figure out who you define as an ECF.

As you're so big on following the EO I'll ask again...are they correct about the pope and original sin and the IC? I mean, if you as you claim, the Greeks are right, then that means the RCC is wrong.

Are you prepared to say that?