The Catholic Church is roundly criticized for its use of titles and honorifics, yet in Protestantism we see the same thing. I've pondered this, not only as hypocrisy, but in trying to understand the context of these verses to derive the true course.

Psalm 111:9
He sent redemption unto his people: he hath commanded his covenant for ever: holy and reverend is his name.

Should anyone else have the title Reverend precede his own name ?

Acts 5:34
Then stood there up one in the council, a Pharisee, named Gamaliel, a doctor of the law, had in reputation among all the people, and commanded to put the apostles forth a little space;

Matthew 23:
Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples, Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not. For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers. But all their works they do for to be seen of men: they make broad their phylacteries, and enlarge the borders of their garments, And love the uppermost rooms at feasts, and the chief seats in the synagogues, And greetings in the markets, and to be called of men, Rabbi, Rabbi. But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ; and all ye are brethren. And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven. Neither be ye called masters: for one is your Master, even Christ.

So three titles were seemingly forbidden:
1. Rabbi
2. Father
3. Master from which is derived Mister
   
   Yet the Apostle to the Gentiles, Paul calls himself a father of those he has fathered in the faith.
   
   1 Corinthians 4:
   
   14. I write not these things to shame you, but as my beloved sons I warn you.
   15. For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel.
   16. Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me.
   17. For this cause have I sent unto you Timotheus, who is my beloved son, and faithful in the Lord, who shall bring you into remembrance of my ways which be in Christ, as I teach every where in every church.
   
   
   And John used the term more broadly since none of these to whom he is writing fathered him in the Gospel. Perhaps the "fathers" to whom he writes have indeed fathered other sons in the Gospel. Note that he does not write to "mothers" or "daughters."
   
   1 John 2:
   
   1. I write unto you, fathers, because ye have known him that is from the beginning. I write unto you, young men, because ye have overcome the wicked one. I write unto you, little children, because ye have known the Father.
   2. I have written unto you, fathers, because ye have known him that is from the beginning. I have written unto you, young men, because ye are strong, and the word of God abideth in you, and ye have overcome the wicked one.
   
   
   
   1. Did the Apostle Paul not know ?
   2. Was the Messiah's teaching only to his Jewish disciples and not applicable to the Gentiles (they would not be called "Rabbi") ?
   3. Why did at least Paul and John not take it literally ?