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For instance, look at how many words it gets out of Job 34:10, "Far be it from God, that He should do wickedness; and from the Almighty, that He should commit iniquity," when literally as seen here , "from" "that he should do" "hat he should commit" is missing, and can easily be understood ass saying, "Far be it from God, wickedness; and from the Almighty, iniquity."

I do not understand this complaint. Perhaps it was just a matter of preference. The Hebrew text is correct and the English translation on the Jewish website (Mechon-Mamre) is the same as the KJV. Hebrew often translates into more English words and here M-M agrees with KJV (I had thought the objection would be about known messianic texts where the Jewish translations, but not the source, differs).

I do not understand this complaint. Perhaps it was just a matter of preference. The Hebrew text is correct and the English translation on the Jewish website (Mechon-Mamre) is the same as the KJV.

It does not agree with the KJV overall for it does not show supplied words, which the KJV usually does (normally by italics), as shown by my example (out of vast multitudes) Job 34:10:

Therefore hearken unto me, ye men of understanding: far be it from God, that he should do wickedness; and from the Almighty, that he should commit iniquity. (Job 34:10)

Here the supplied words, though unnecessary, their absence do have any real significance, however, in a case such as John 8:24 and 18:5-6 I think they may:

"I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he , ye shall die in your sins. (John 8:24) "

"They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he . And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he , they went backward, and fell to the ground. (John 18:5-6) "

In both cases, from what i can see, the Lord literally said "I am," the same statement that He made in Jn. 8:58,"verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am," (cf. Ex. 3:14) without the "he" in the Greek, which i believe, can be demanded, if not always. Yet i think that Jn. 8:24 infers deity, as does that the soldiers fell down at the declaration "I am," in 18:8.

And as i recalled finding that sometimes the KJV does not distinguish supplied words, and since as explained, i am not being able to read Hebrew, then before i found a source that enabled me to see each word that was in the text at issue, i first sought to ascertain whether your source was a precise word for word English translation, which it is not. .

Hebrew often translates into more English words and here M-M agrees with KJV (I had thought the objection would be about known messianic texts where the Jewish translations, but not the source, differs).

Yes, more words are often necessary in English, but when the focus is on one word which may make a difference (not that it turned out that it really must in our case), then word for word accuracy can be important, just as it might if reading a will in a foreign language.

And i think maybe its time to put this one to bed.