Posted on 03/12/2016 9:36:07 AM PST by Salvation
Perpetual virginity
3/9/2016
Question: I am a lifelong and devout Catholic and have always considered Mary to be ever virgin. But recently, I read in my Bible that Joseph had no relations with Mary “before” she bore a son (Mt 1:25). Now, I wonder if our belief does not contradict the Bible.— Eugene DeClue, Festus, Missouri
Answer: The Greek word “heos,” which your citation renders “before,” is more accurately translated “until,” which can be ambiguous without a wider context of time. It is true, in English, the usual sense of “until” is that I am doing or not doing something now “until” something changes, and then I start doing or not doing it. However, this is not always the case, even in Scripture.
If I say to you, “God bless you until we meet again.” I do not mean that after we meet again God’s blessing will cease or turn to curses. In this case, “until” is merely being used to refer to an indefinite period of time which may or may not ever occur. Surely, I hope we meet again, but it is possible we will not, so go with God’s blessings, whatever the case.
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In Scripture, too, we encounter “until” being used merely to indicate an indefinite period whose conditions may or may not be met. Thus, we read, “And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death” (2 Sam 6:23). Of course, this should not be taken to mean that she started having children after she died. If I say to you in English that Christ “must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet” (1 Cor 15:25), I do not mean his everlasting kingdom will actually end thereafter.
While “until” often suggests a future change of state, it does not necessarily mean that the change happens — or even can happen. Context is important. It is the same in Greek, where heos, or heos hou, require context to more fully understand what is being affirmed.
The teaching of the perpetual virginity of Mary does not rise or fall on one word, rather, a body of evidence from other sources such as: Mary’s question to the angel as to how a betrothed virgin would conceive; Jesus entrusting Mary to the care of a non-blood relative at this death; and also the long witness of ancient Tradition.
And as a sacrifice for sin via the intercession of a class of believers distinctly titled "priests," that was progressively a later post apostolic development
In contrast to the Lord's supper being the Source and Summit of the Christian faith in which our redemption is accomplished, providing expiation for sin and the bread of life and of angels to the recipients, which the offering of such being the primary unique function of NT pastors;
the Lord's supper is only manifestly described in two letters in the life of the church , and in which it is a communal meal, not just a wafer, and the church as the body of Christ showing the death of the Lord for the body by effectually treating each other as members of that body is the focus;
and it is the hearing of the word of God that is what is said to provide faith, (Rm. 10:17) and thereby obtain spiritual life, (Acts 15:7-11; Eph. 1:13) and "nourish" believers, (1Tim. 4:6) and build them up, (Acts 20:32) and the preaching of which, and prayer, is the primary function of NT pastors, who are never distinctively titled "priests" as they do not engage in any unique sacerdotal function.
This is just
one of many contrasts btwn the NT church and the Roman deformation.
yup; really...
Ok already!!
So we DID have a couple (7 at least) Catholic churches in the early days that were; shall we say; a bit messed up.
But we've CORRECTED all that now!!
--Catholic_Wannabe_Dude(Hail Mary!)
What we 'think' doesn't matter.
What does HISTORY record as being the first time that CATHOLICS were TOLD 'they were actually consuming the body and blood of Jesus Christ'?
What does EARLY mean?
pre-Roman
We are accused of ignoring the stupid question while the accuser will ignore the cogent answer you’ve given. Some people show they will march to oblivion because there are many they see doing it so willingly for so long.
The title threw me
What year?
I’d say it was a topic that garnered much discussion, arguments, disagreements and compromise from the start and it is still ongoing. The Apostles warned believers about those who would try to scatter the sheep and lead them astray. There were people who denied Jesus HAD a physical body or that He physically died(i.e.; Docetists, gnostics). Many of the writings of the early church fathers disputed them rather than teach what Catholicism claims today in “transubstantiation”. You can read about some of this here:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transubstantiation
What troubles me the most on this topic is the claim of Catholicism that ONLY the Catholic priest has the authority to dispense the “Eucharist” and with it the means to salvation. It goes hand and hand with the contention that “outside the Catholic church there is no salvation”. This is counter to Scripture as well as the Christian faith Jesus taught and sacrificed to build his called out ones/his body and bride.
If I'm there and He says "take and eat of this, THIS IS MY BODY"....I'd take His word for it right there.
So was Jesus.
I understand that there are many differences about transubstantiation and other teachings of the Catholic Church.
Regarding the Eucharist, though, there is much evidence that early Christians uniformily believed that they were consuming the real body and blood of Jesus Christ.
See
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eucharist
http://www.therealpresence.org/eucharst/father/a5.html
sure it is.
I can't swim, so I ALWAYS sit down in a boat.
At the last supper.
that is a guy who foresees the protestant revolution.
Catholiciism stamps as presumptuous belief that one is born from above in the hour of belief/faith in Christ as Redeemer, their Redeemer. You believe you eat the very Divinity of God at catholic Mass. Could there be a more blasphemous presumption?
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