Posted on 03/12/2016 9:36:07 AM PST by Salvation
Perpetual virginity
3/9/2016
Question: I am a lifelong and devout Catholic and have always considered Mary to be ever virgin. But recently, I read in my Bible that Joseph had no relations with Mary “before” she bore a son (Mt 1:25). Now, I wonder if our belief does not contradict the Bible.— Eugene DeClue, Festus, Missouri
Answer: The Greek word “heos,” which your citation renders “before,” is more accurately translated “until,” which can be ambiguous without a wider context of time. It is true, in English, the usual sense of “until” is that I am doing or not doing something now “until” something changes, and then I start doing or not doing it. However, this is not always the case, even in Scripture.
If I say to you, “God bless you until we meet again.” I do not mean that after we meet again God’s blessing will cease or turn to curses. In this case, “until” is merely being used to refer to an indefinite period of time which may or may not ever occur. Surely, I hope we meet again, but it is possible we will not, so go with God’s blessings, whatever the case.
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In Scripture, too, we encounter “until” being used merely to indicate an indefinite period whose conditions may or may not be met. Thus, we read, “And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death” (2 Sam 6:23). Of course, this should not be taken to mean that she started having children after she died. If I say to you in English that Christ “must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet” (1 Cor 15:25), I do not mean his everlasting kingdom will actually end thereafter.
While “until” often suggests a future change of state, it does not necessarily mean that the change happens — or even can happen. Context is important. It is the same in Greek, where heos, or heos hou, require context to more fully understand what is being affirmed.
The teaching of the perpetual virginity of Mary does not rise or fall on one word, rather, a body of evidence from other sources such as: Mary’s question to the angel as to how a betrothed virgin would conceive; Jesus entrusting Mary to the care of a non-blood relative at this death; and also the long witness of ancient Tradition.
Perpetual fuzziness
And along with other errors., praying to created beings in Heaven was also held, which is utterly without even one example despite the Holy Spirit providing approx. 200 prayers in Scripture by believers, and in contrast showing only pagans making supplication to someone else in Heaven, and both are contrary what Scripture teaches, in which only God is shown able to hear from Heaven any and all the prayers from earth. Angels and elders offering prayers as a memorial before the final judgments will not do either.
However, Rome has presumed to infallibly declare she is and will be perpetually infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares. Which fallacious premise is the basis for RC assurance of faith.
It is believed de fide (held an essential part of faith) by Catholics as well as by Eastern and Oriental Orthodoxy,
And both declare each other to be in error.
The Orthodox Church opposes the Roman doctrines of universal papal jurisdiction, papal infallibility, purgatory, and the Immaculate Conception precisely because they are untraditional." - Orthodox apologist and author Clark Carlton: THE WAY: What Every Protestant Should Know About the Orthodox Church, 1997, p 135.
Both purgatory and indulgences are inter-corrolated theories, unwitnessed in the Bible or in the Ancient Church.. — http://www.goarch.org/ourfaith/ourfaith7076
Such a “vain deceit” is the teaching of the Immaculate Conception by Anna of the Virgin Mary, which at first sight exalts, but in actual fact belittles Her. Like every lie, it is a seed of the “father of lies” (John 8:44), the devil, who has succeeded by it in blaspheme the Virgin Mary. Together with it there should also be rejected all the other teachings which have come from it or are akin to it. — "Saint" John Maximovitch; http://preachersinstitute.com/2010/06/24/the-error-of-the-immaculate-conception/
Orthodoxy is not simply an alternative ecclesiastical structure to the Roman Catholic Church. The Orthodox Church presents a fundamentally different approach to theology, because She possesses a fundamentally different experience of Christ and life in Him. To put it bluntly, she knows a different Christ from that of the Roman Catholic Church.” — Clark Carlton, THE WAY: What Every Protestant Should Know About the Orthodox Church, 1997;
So, to formally reject this is heresy,
As your premise is false, so is your conclusion. Rome is indicted as heretical, and in the past obedience to the pope could mean one must exterminate all those she calls heretics, but obedience to God requires dissent to Rome just believing the message of some itinerant preachers of the first century did in dissent from the historical magisterial office and stewards of Divine revelation.
And that's a biggie. If you don't accept the virginity of Mary on the authority of the Church, why would you accept the doctrines of the Incarnation, or the Trinity, Baptism or the Lord's Supper or even the canon of Scripture on the authority of the Church? I Mrs Don-o! You have been on this forum for how long, and yet you resort to this most basic fallacy? Which is no more valid than requiring obedience to all the judgments of the Scribes and Pharisees since they who sat in the seat of Moses and so upheld basic truths that conditional obedience to them was enjoined by the Lord. (Mt. 23:2) But whom He reproved by Scripture in the case of errors. (Mt. 15:1-9; 22:41-45; 23:16-22)
Neither must we accept anything on the authority of Rome, but affirm such to the degree that they are warranted on the authority of Scripture, and thus dissent on such things as the sinless status of Mary, baptismal regeneration, the cannibalistic doctrine of the Lord's Supper, and the added books of the OT canon.
If you reject Christ's guarantees to His Church in principle,
Which again is based on a fallacious premise, for again the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)
And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved them Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)
you've rejected what He constituted as the pillar and foundation of the Truth.
Which is more error based on error, for Scripture does not teach that the church is the pillar and foundation of the Truth, or is speaking of one particular church body as being the "church of the living God," but which is what Caths extrapolate out of 1 Tim 3:15, which in the Greek simply says "church living God, pillar and ground the truth," with the word for "ground" (ground being what the Douay-Rheims uses, which trad. RC often prefer) being "hedraiōma," which is said to be unseen in Hellenistic Jewish literature or in the LXX or in secular Greek, or it is said to have meant fixed, steadfast, or immovable.
That the church of the living God both supports and is fixed on the Truth (though no word for "of" appears in the Greek, nor for "of" the truth) is substantiated in Scripture, the Lord Himself taking time to go thru Scripture and show the basis for His Messiaship and ministry, and opening the understanding of the disciples (more than just apostles being present) to them. (Lk. 24:44,45)
But the word used for "foundation" in the rest of the NT, such as "For other foundation [themelios] can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ" (1 Corinthians 3:11) is not used here, yet Caths seem to invoke 1 Tim 3:15 as if it said that the church was the pillar and basis of the Truth, for RCs seem to imagine that the church was like a kind of "big bang" and did actually begin upon and flow from the foundation of Scripture, to which the NT abundantly quotes, references and appeals to.
Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) (Romans 1:1-2) But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: (Romans 16:26)
However, I don't think most theological dissenters are formal heretics. This is because they lack --- I think --- either the degree of knowledge or the degree of intentionality which would have to be there, to constitute a mortal sin.
Well whatever other lack let me assure you that while it is possible, I do knowing reject, in obedience to God via Scripture, the Perpetual Virginity of Mary as binding doctrine, and reject the basis for the veracity of this, that being the novel premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility, which is unseen and unnecessary in Scripture.
And thus your arguments for being an RC are refuted and are an argument against being one.
Indeed, among other examples reproved by God's grace.
Excellent point!
You’ve told me all I need to know.
We like for folks to see your ignorance on parade.
Not sure about whether having to believe Mary remained a virgin for your salvation from the catholic perspective is “stupid” as you put it. I’d think a catholic would want to share their faith.
Dear Mrs. Don-o
I just want to let you know that your response was very helpful to me. I had a general idea of what the Catholic teaching is, but your response provided a thorough explanation. Thank you for answering the question.
Peace,
Rich
Catholics just HATE it when History illustrates one of their novel man-made doctrines.
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16. God the Father gave his only Son to the world only through Mary. Whatever desires the patriarchs may have cherished, whatever entreaties the prophets and saints of the Old Law may have had for 4,000 years to obtain that treasure, it was Mary alone who merited it and found grace before God by the power of her prayers and the perfection of her virtues.
The first thing you should do is round up all the literature with this Demontfort's name connected with it and throw it in the round file...Where did you ever get the idea that this guy was an authority on what God says???
The apostle Paul speaks extensively about grace...He insists that salvation be given us only by grace...It is impossible for us to obtain a perfect righteousness by our own faith or our own good works...It is Christs faith and His works that count...This is why God gives us salvation by grace-as a gift...
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Eph 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
Grace and works are exact opposites...Rewards come by the practice of works, but mercy comes by the application of grace...In the Bible, salvation is always and exclusively by grace...
And what is grace???
χάρις
charis
khar'-ece
From G5463; graciousness (as gratifying), of manner or act (abstract or concrete; literal, figurative or spiritual; especially the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life; including gratitude): - acceptable, benefit, favour, gift, grace (-ious), joy liberality, pleasure, thank (-s, -worthy).
Grace is a free gift, a favor...Unearned, unmerited favor...
Rom 11:6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work.
It is impossible that Mary worked for and earned grace...Someone's lying, Demontfort, or God...And I'll guarantee it is not God who is lying...
"The world being unworthy," said Saint Augustine, "to receive the Son of God directly from the hands of the Father, he gave his Son to Mary for the world to receive him from her.
Augustine is nuts...Jesus IS God, manifest in the flesh of Jesus...God was manifest AS flesh numerous times in the O.T. wandering around on the earth even getting into a wrestling match with one fella...
God the Holy Spirit formed Jesus Christ in Mary but only after having asked her consent through one of the chief ministers of his court.
That's another fable...The Holy Spirit never asked Mary anything...They must educate or brainwash you people out of believing the bible before they allow you to join their religion...
Likewise...
... I can count of one of you IGNORING the same pointed questions, later in the week, next week, Next month, next year etc...
Why didn't Peter teach the RIGHT theology to those 7 Catholic churches in Asia to begin with?
I hear ya!
Who invited you?
Ealgeone pinged me.
And I thank you as well, Rich, for your gracious words.
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