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To: MHGinTN
So how does that change the fact that RCC in the authorized Douay-Rheims changed the meaning to be ‘she’ the singular pronoun, to support the specious Mariology dogma?

You are begging the question, so to speak.

Incidentally, the Jewish Scholars who translated the Hebrew into Greek did not use a Greek word form that conveys ‘they’. The mword form they used conveys ‘He’.

So make up your own translation; you've got forty years' experience wandering in the wilderness; does that not qualify you to make your own translations, gospel, doctrines, customs, traditions ? Just be sure to get the name of your faith community copyrighted; so many are already taken.

Got wrath?

Is that a new slogan for a marketing campaign ?
But to answer you; No, I got mercy.

1,088 posted on 07/08/2015 4:21:03 PM PDT by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: af_vet_1981

Naw, I think I’ll go with the translation by the Jewish Scholars who gave the world the Septuagint, the same translation which the RCC changed to support the heresies of Mariology. Maybe you would like to share a half dozen Scripture passages which teach Mariology and support the RCC characterization of the Mother of Jesus?


1,089 posted on 07/08/2015 4:26:37 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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