The suffix -μενος, -μενη, -μενο (here in plural, -μενα) simply means it the action of the preceding verb is completed. When it is completed is controlled by the verb εἰμί. In this case we have εσται, future tense, "will-be" (I insert a hyphen because in Greek that's one word). So "εσται δεδεμένα" means "will-be bound", etc.
You can translate "shall have been bound" if you want to overcomplicate the text. Most readers of English understand that "shall be bound" does not mean "shall be being bound again and again", -- the action of binding will be complete. Young's literal has it even "shall be having been bound", which is simply incorrect English grammar.
So on that part you are correct: the heavenly binding and loosing is complete, finished binding and loosing, not continuous one (which in Greek would use the suffix -ομαι, -εται).
You are wrong about "results existing in the present time". The future tense of εσται indicates that the result will be complete in the future. This is also consistent with the conditional εαν. All the translations agree on that part
| Matthew | ||||
| Greek NT: Byzantine/Majority Text (2000) | English: Douay-Rheims | English: King James Version | English: Young's Literal Translation | |
| Matthew 16 |
||||
| 19. | και δωσω σοι τας κλεις της βασιλειας των ουρανων και ο εαν δησης επι της γης εσται δεδεμενον εν τοις ουρανοις και ο εαν λυσης επι της γης εσται λελυμενον εν τοις ουρανοις | And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven. | And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven. | and I will give to thee the keys of the reign of the heavens, and whatever thou mayest bind upon the earth shall be having been bound in the heavens, and whatever thou mayest loose upon the earth shall be having been loosed in the heavens.' |
We see similar construct in at least two more contexts: "ιερουσαλημ εσται πατουμενη" ("Jerusalem shall be trodden down", Luke 21:24) and "εσται η προς ολιγον φαινομενη επειτα δε και αφανιζομενη" ("appeareth for a little time, and then vanisheth away", James 4:14). In both cases it is clear that Jerusalem will be trodden down in the future but is not so now; and the "life" that appears and vanishes does so many times now and in the future. While down-trodding, appearing and vanishing are complete actions each time they occur, they are not fixed at the time of the speech.
I understand that when we talk about heaven time considerations are somewhat blurred, -- there is no time for God, -- but the meaning here is clear: the Church (or, at least, the disciples present) may bind and loose in the future, and whatever decision they make on earth will be in heaven. There is nothing mysterious about the grammar here to indicate that the disciples will first consult heaven and then pretend to decide on earth while in fact they simply look it up somehow. They will truly be deciding. And decide they did: for example, when they abolished the dietetic and ceremonial laws of Moses, they did the exact opposite of what you suggesting: they knew what the scripture said and they decided different and -- surprise -- it is now bound in heaven that we may eat lobster and pork.
The suffix -μενος, -μενη, -μενο (here in plural, -μενα) simply means it the action of the preceding verb is completed. When it is completed is controlled by the verb εἰμί. In this case we have εσται, future tense, "will-be" (I insert a hyphen because in Greek that's one word). So "εσται δεδεμένα" means "will-be bound", etc.
You can translate "shall have been bound" if you want to overcomplicate the text. Most readers of English understand that "shall be bound" does not mean "shall be being bound again and again", -- the action of binding will be complete. Young's literal has it even "shall be having been bound", which is simply incorrect English grammar.
Shall have been is the correct way to interpret the perfect tense. Sorry you feel that "over complicates" things. Also,I did not say it would be bound over and over again. That's your point...not mine. You need to go and re-read how the perfect tense in Greek works. Young's translation, while not smooth, does capture what the perfect tense is about.
So on that part you are correct: the heavenly binding and loosing is complete, finished binding and loosing, not continuous one (which in Greek would use the suffix -ομαι, -εται).
I'm glad you recognize this.
You are wrong about "results existing in the present time". The future tense of εσται indicates that the result will be complete in the future. This is also consistent with the conditional εαν. All the translations agree on that part
No...all the translations do not agree on that part.
NASB, which is the most literal of the translations records the verse as:
Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.
Again, go research the perfect tense. While it may not come across in the printed word, it is up to the expositor to bring out the meaning of the tense of the verbs and participles.
I understand that when we talk about heaven time considerations are somewhat blurred, -- there is no time for God, -- but the meaning here is clear: the Church (or, at least, the disciples present) may bind and loose in the future, and whatever decision they make on earth will be in heaven.
You might want to re-think the part I've bolded. That's a pretty open ended statement you've made there and I'm pretty sure it isn't how it's supposed to work.
For example, if the church says it's ok for women to be priests, I don't think Heaven would agree as it contradicts the Word....but that's never stopped catholicism before.