Because homosexual acts, and homosexual rape are completely moral acts that God doesn't bring judgment against < /sarc>
Why does everyone assume that the story of Sodom is the source and proof-text for the sinfulness of homosexuality? Homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in Leviticus 18.
Ever since Vatican II, which seemed to be the kick-off point for homosexual apologetics, the clergy have been hastening to tell us that the sin of Sodom was not homosexuality.
However, the fact that the word “sodomy” existed long before Vatican II indicates that most people understood it this way, that is, that the sin of Sodom was sexual sin.
The first time I heard in a homily that it was “failure to provide hospitality,” I almost burst out laughing.
Oh-oh ... how long befor Monsignor is called in for a dressing down from ++Wuerl over this essay?
What, not setting out the guest towels? It must be that, never mind the buggery.
I found this by Daniel Greenfield (whose writing I really enjoy) about a 'show offer'.
He talks about a 'show offer' and explains that Lot was really saying was 'there is about as good a chance of me turning these guys over to you as there is to me giving you my virgin daughters'. Per Daniel, the mob understood what he was saying and there were livid.
What was the sin of Gomorrah?
The story is as clear as a bell, what it is about. Anybody who says the sin of Sodom was lack of hospitality is rationalizing. The Bible makes clear that the men of Sodom were almost all given in to homosexuality. Those wanting to engage in homosexuality reject all authority. They will bend and distort any truth that gets in their way, even to include the meaning of marriage.
These people are so far gone that nothing can be done with them. I’m sorry but they are lost. Only God can turn their heads.
Very solid analysis.