Why does everyone assume that the story of Sodom is the source and proof-text for the sinfulness of homosexuality? Homosexuality is explicitly forbidden in Leviticus 18.
What do you say to Homosexuals who would agree that it is about Hospitality AND gang rape BUT NOT consensual sex (especially when both partners love each other)?
The reason I ask is because I’ve heard this reasoning many times from gay friendly churches.
Also the gays would argue that Leviticus was not even written yet during the time of Sodom and Gomorrah...
How would the Sodomites have known about Leviticus 18? Moses had not yet been born to even pen the book when God destroyed the perverts.
Exactly, the problem with Sodom was SIN. The homosexual acts were just one manifestation of it.
Everyone? [exaggeration] Source? [a very good one, but certainly not the only one as you point out] Proof-text ....
Sodomite. As words go, it's a pretty powerful one. No surprise that its use is verbotten in the current PC environment. But in truth, even though forbidden to say in public, Sodomite = homosexual = 'gay'. And the origin of the word is absolutely clear from the Bible. As a "proof-text", IMHO, that is hard to beat.