No --- there was no "quote" from some other person here, which you could make 'adjustment' to while being dismissive, amid all the rest of the habitual mischaracterization of conversations.
It was scripture itself you were monkeying around with that time, changing a single word to better suit your own premise.
Yes, as I made some effort to point out to you in the note to which you gave reply. Yet still -- you changed scripture to not only just cut myself out of the picture, but to better suit your own preconceptions.
You don't get to do that.
It is widely taken for granted that the messages and theology as those are explained, demonstrated, and further discussed, are meant for all of us -- with the "us" I speak of here being those of the Gentile nations whom He also calls to Himself, in addition to the Hebrews.
I am familiar with the concept. It is as natural as breathing...
which in changing one word --- and by importing reasoning from who-knows what sources (those being difficult to track down as to when & where precisely the changes of application of such concepts as communion of the saints entered the picture as compared to as those can be found traces of in historical record in regards to the primitive church) you have made the Holy Spirit into being a communal effort.
It is (as scripture indicates) the Spirit of the Lord who (as Young's translation worded it)
It does not say working in a [them] which we then should pray to for guidance...
As to the working of the Holy Spirit within a person;
is it now "Mary" and those perceived to be "the saints" as you would seem to either have it or prefer it, who is now "God working in [those the letter was addressed to]" -- with that question posed to be considered narrowly, as to what Paul wrote to the Philippians, for as has been well enough established (and we would likely find agreement towards) it must first be established who was speaking what, to whom, in what setting, in order to gain clearest sense of the texts.
I suggest that Paul was not speaking of the spirits of saints working in one another, but that Paul was speaking of the Holy Spirit when he wrote "God working in you...".
As you continued, citing a portion of 2 Corinthian 3:18 (not knowing the translation which you used, I will need here chose one);
18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.with your own presentation of the same passage having coming after yourself having said;
Venerate? Since when did "venerate" include asking for advice from one saint or another considered to now be IN HEAVEN (I do hope they are all there or shall be) as named distinctively, other than God the Father (who is in heaven)".
But we are getting warmer as to the theological differences between; what is spoken of in the scripture passages which you cite, and what we were otherwise speaking of in regards to praying towards those other than God, with your having previously said "Of course when I pray to Mary or to any other saint I pray to that particular saint, -- for his/her intercession, or advice, etc"
If it be so, if it be truly proper to worship God by way of venerating those perceived to be saints, the question also unavoidably arises as to --- just who it is who is being worshiped.
May I suggest that when venerating those whom have come before us (in regards to the Kingdom of God) it be much more theologically sound; that when we pray while also venerating these who have passed on from this realm to the next, we limit ourselves to prayer concerning them to be more as prayers of thanksgiving for those notable persons who have once been living among us on this earth, while if otherwise also seeking guidance from He who as Paul wrote "works within [us] ...for His good pleasure" we by all means should, as scripture abundantly indicates, pray directly towards the singular Creator of the heavens and the earth?
I pose that question to you not in seeking answer in form of instruction from you to myself, but as to points of theological discussion.
Otherwise, if we pray to saints, seeking from them the things of God, even by His own Spirit, if those same saints be now in some manner as one with Him, if those saints now yet further be Him to extent that venerating one (a saint) be worshiping another --even God Himself (for you did just say that when venerating saints you also worship God who made them so) -- then they (the saints prayed to) have lost their own personal identities, or else one is worshiping or at least praying to something identifiably other than God while as you put it --- "venerating" the saints.
If they be as one, and praying to a saint be likened to praying to God (or some particular aspect of Godliness emulated or personified by singularly identifiable "saint") I say again, the saints lose their own identities.
This fluid change of identification of persons and principles by way of substitution, if but by way of subtle blending of identities when not blatant and out-right "change", is exemplified by the very 'adjustment' which you subjected Philippians 2:13 to in the first place, hence my own objections towards that type of action --- oh ye Great Rabbi.
Some people hear; but they don’t listen.
I explained it once. I changed to suit "you" to "them" the grammar. If you don't get it, I don't care any more.
not knowing the translation which you used
May I suggest...
Sure. Suggest. I kinda lost interest, but go ahead, for whoever reads your opus. I can only repeat: the prayer to a saint is addressed to the particular saint (or a group of saints) because that is how the faithful is lead by the Holy Ghost to pray. Also a prayer to any saint venerates God who made His saints.