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Where Does the Bible Say We Should Pray to Dead Saints?
catholic-convert ^
| July 11, 2012
| Steve Ray
Posted on 07/14/2013 3:02:43 PM PDT by NYer
Are saints who have physically died “dead saints” or are they alive with God?
A friend named Leonard Alt got tired of being hammered by anti-Catholic Fundamentalists on this issue so he decided to write this article. I thought you might enjoy it too, so here it goes…
Leonard writes: I wrote this note after several days of frustration with people, on Facebook, saying that saints cant do anything, because they are dead. They seem to be leaving out the fact that the souls live on. ENJOY!
Dead and gone? Where is his soul-his person?
An antagonist named Warren Ritz asked, Who are the “dead in Christ”, if not those who walked with our Lord, but who are now no longer among the living?” He is correct; the dead in Christ are those saints who have physically died. For the Lord himself, with a word of command, with the voice of an archangel and with the trumpet of God, will come down from heaven, and the dead in Christ will rise first (1 Thess 4:16).
THE CONCEPT OF LIVING SAINTS CAN DO HARM TO THE JESUS ALONE DOCTRINE. From some peoples point of view, people who have died are classified as dead saints, who can do nothing. They are no longer a force to reckon with; they can no longer appear; they cannot talk nor do other things. These same people dont want the saints who have died doing anything because this would be another reason why the Protestant doctrine, JESUS ALONE fails. If the so-called dead saints do anything then it is not JESUS ALONE, but Jesus and the saints cooperating. And it would also mean that the so-called dead saints are in fact not dead, but alive with God.
Dead or in paradise?
HIS PHYSICAL BODY DIED BUT HIS SOUL LIVED ON. But, are the Saints who have gone before us alive with God or are they truly dead saints who can do nothing as some would suggest? Yes, their bodies are dead, but their souls live on. For example Jesus said to one of the criminals on the cross next to him, “Amen, I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise” (Lk 23:43). Yes, that day, this man became the dead in Christ because his physical body died on his cross; however, Jesus said that today, this man would be with Him in paradise. He was no dead saint because his soul was alive in Christ in Paradise.
Abraham, Isaac and Jacob alive and concerned for their descendants
HE IS THE GOD OF THE LIVING. One person alluded to Mark 12:26-27 saying Jesus is the God of the living, not of the dead in an attempt to show that Jesus cannot be the god of those who have died; after all he says Jesus is the god of the living. However, he left out three people who were no longer alive in verse 26; Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. God said that He was their God. And so does that mean that God is the God of the dead? No; He is not God of the dead but of the living.
- “God told him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, (the) God of Isaac, and (the) God of Jacob’? He is not God of the dead but of the living. You are greatly misled” (Mk 12: 26-27).
Abraham Isaac and Jacob are physically dead and yet their souls are alive because their God is not God of the dead but of the living and thus do not qualify as dead saints.
Moses was dead and buried. How could he talk to Jesus about future events on earth?
WHEN MOSES AND ELIJAH APPEARED WERE THEY DEAD OR ALIVE? There are those who insist that saints who have died are nothing more than dead saints who can do nothing. I usually ask them this question. When Moses and Elijah appeared with Jesus on the Mount of Transfiguration, were they dead or alive? And behold, two men were conversing with him, Moses and Elijah” (Lk 9:30). Not bad for a couple of so-called dead saints; not only did they appear, but they were talking as well. The question that I asked usually goes unanswered.
SORRY LEONARD
YOU HAVE A BAD ARGUMENT. Bill says, As Ecclesiastes says the dead have nothing more to do under the sun…sorry Leonard…you have a bad argument. He is using this as definitive Biblical proof that people on the other side cannot do anything once they have died. After all, Ecclesiastes does say, For them, love and hatred and rivalry have long since perished. They [the dead] will never again have part in anything that is done under the sun (Eccles 9:6).
When a person dies their body is in the grave; it is dead. They can no longer work under the sun, in this world. However, Ecclesiastes 9:6 is not a prohibition against the activity of the persons soul, which lives on. This of course begs the question; is there any indication of personal activity of a soul after death, in Scripture?
How did the bones of a dead guy bring another dead guy back to life?
Yes, there are a number of examples and here is one of them. Elisha after dying performed marvelous deeds. In life he [Elisha] performed wonders, and after death, marvelous deeds (Sir 48:14). Elisha died and was buried. At the time, bands of Moabites used to raid the land each year. Once some people were burying a man, when suddenly they spied such a raiding band. So they cast the dead man into the grave of Elisha, and everyone went off. But when the man came in contact with the bones of Elisha, he came back to life and rose to his feet (Kings 13:20-21).
Using, Ecclesiastes 9:6 as a prohibition against all soul activity after death is to use the verse out of context and at odds with other parts of the Bible. Ecclesiastes 9:6 is referring to the physical body that has died, not the soul that lives on. Elisha, after death performed marvelous deeds. It cant be much clearer than that!
The saints are not dead but alive in the presence of their Lord Jesus and part of the praying Mystical Body of Christ
JESUS NEVER CLAIMED THAT THOSE WHO HAVE DIED ARE DEAD SAINTS. Jesus understood well that when someone dies, they will live and in fact those who live and believe in him WILL NEVER DIE.
“Jesus told her, “I am the resurrection and the life; whoever believes in me, even if he dies, will live, and everyone who lives and believes in me will never die. Do you believe this” (Jn 11:23-26)?
This union, with the saints on this side and the saints on the other side is referred to as the communion of saints in the Apostles Creed. Those who insist that dead saints cant do anything because their bodies have physically died seem not to understand that their souls live on and are very involved.
So, where does the Bible say we should pray to dead saints? I would ask, Where does the Bible say saints are dead?
TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; Ministry/Outreach
KEYWORDS: catholic; deadsaints; doctrine; prayer; scripture
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To: driftdiver
No! My type of Catholic never read doctrine. Baltimore Cathecism was enough for me.
Yes, I do pray to my favorite saints for interception with God. I also collect Sicilian votives of various body parts so that I can get relief from my sinuses, etc.
To: FourtySeven
<<
<
=
=
What part of ONE don’t you understand? Jesus is our mediator - not anyone else.
1 Timothy 2:5
King James Version (KJV)
5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus
42
posted on
07/14/2013 3:36:09 PM PDT
by
Catsrus
(`)
To: petro45acp
Sorry...but I don’t see the word *alone* in that quote anywhere.
I think all Christians agree that the Bible is an amazing, living source of teaching, inspired by God to assist us in following the WAY with Jesus...but I have never seen any Scripture that says it “alone* can teach/guide us. It does NOT say that the Bible is the pillar of truth for us either.
43
posted on
07/14/2013 3:36:10 PM PDT
by
SumProVita
(Cogito, ergo....Sum Pro Vita - Modified Descartes)
To: Greetings_Puny_Humans
I was merely pointing out the similarity of the understanding that the soul is alive, and the earthly body is a covering like a tent.
You see it differently, that’s all.
44
posted on
07/14/2013 3:37:25 PM PDT
by
little jeremiah
(Courage is not simply one of the virtues, but the form of every virtue at the testing point. CSLewis)
To: driftdiver
Where does the Catholic church teach that we pray “to” the Saints in heaven?
45
posted on
07/14/2013 3:37:40 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: SumProVita
“I did read your post and saw nothing that stated we needed nothing else besides the Bible.”
I can’t help you if you refuse to read the facts. Sorry. You can either actually respond to what I say or play stupid. But, I’m not obligated to play stupid along with you.
“Hmmmm...well when Paul was writing...did the Christian communities (or even the rest of the Aposltes and disciples) have access to all the books of the Bible? When did they first have access to the Bible? Exactly how many years went by in the history of Christianity before there was a Bible?”
Presumably the Old Testament always existed. And the New Testament was written and handed down to the church as they were being produced. Ignatius, Polycarp, and Irenaeus, from the end of the 1st century to the middle part of the 2nd century, quoted from essentially every book in the Bible, save maybe 2 Peter or Jude. That demonstrates that the scripture was already available, most of it being written before the destruction of the Jewish Temple, with the only stragglers possibly being the work of John, who survived after the Temple’s destruction.
Not to mention, all of the Apostles had the authority to produce scripture, and to be regarded as Prophets, so as long as they were alive, no written text was even necessary, and anything God inspired in them to write is what would become our treasure after they pass.
To: NYer
“Let the dead bury the dead.”
To: Catsrus
A mediator!= An intercessor.
48
posted on
07/14/2013 3:38:08 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: Greetings_Puny_Humans
“And the New Testament was written and handed down to the church as they were being produced”
You never answered his question. When did the Church have access to the New Testament in the form that we have it today?
49
posted on
07/14/2013 3:39:08 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: JCBreckenridge
Jesus is our only mediator
50
posted on
07/14/2013 3:39:27 PM PDT
by
GeronL
To: aMorePerfectUnion
Thank you for your correct, biblical, theologically-sound, historically accurate answer to the question. It is spiritually refreshing to hear the truth succinctly stated. Whether it will be believed and followed as opposed to following the “doctrines and traditions of men” on this subject is another matter all together. But if they reject the truth, that is not your fault because you have presented sound, biblical doctrine concerning the question.
51
posted on
07/14/2013 3:39:57 PM PDT
by
Jmouse007
(Lord deliver us from evil, in Jesus name, amen.)
To: miss marmelstein
Didn’t you attack me earlier for rejecting contraception?
52
posted on
07/14/2013 3:41:02 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: JCBreckenridge
“You never answered his question. When did the Church have access to the New Testament in the form that we have it today?”
Actually, I did answer his question.
To: GeronL
Again, mediator!= intercessor.
The terms do not mean the same thing. Look at Lot - he pleaded with YHWH to save the people of his city if enough righteous were found.
54
posted on
07/14/2013 3:42:02 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: Jim Noble
Where does the Bible say that the Bible says everything?Revelation 22:
18 For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book;
19 and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
55
posted on
07/14/2013 3:42:14 PM PDT
by
Albion Wilde
("Remember... the first revolutionary was Satan."--Russian Orthodox Archpriest Dmitry Smirnov)
To: elkfersupper
“Huh?”
I give you extra credit for succinctness!
Unfortunately, I must take away points for lucidity.
Still, you have enough points left over to pass this semester. Congratulations!!!
:-)
56
posted on
07/14/2013 3:42:36 PM PDT
by
aMorePerfectUnion
( “The more corrupt the state, the more numerous the laws.” - Tacitus)
To: Greetings_Puny_Humans
No, you didn’t.
One, you never specified a time.
Two, you spoke of books, individual, not of the bible as a whole, which is what his question asked.
So when did the bible first appear in the form in which we are familiar with today?
57
posted on
07/14/2013 3:43:12 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: Albion Wilde
I guess it’s a bad thing then that Luther’s abridged bible tossed out books, eh?
58
posted on
07/14/2013 3:43:49 PM PDT
by
JCBreckenridge
("we are pilgrims in an unholy land")
To: Jmouse007
jm,
Thanks for taking time to post and for your kindness.
When faced with “boldly coming before the throne of God” as EVERY Christian may do because of the work of Christ,
or pretending or hoping someone else can hear you and bring them before God, I will go directly to God.
best,
ampu
59
posted on
07/14/2013 3:44:13 PM PDT
by
aMorePerfectUnion
( “The more corrupt the state, the more numerous the laws.” - Tacitus)
To: JCBreckenridge
“One, you never specified a time.”
Yes I did. I said “they were handed down to the church as they were produced.” I don’t know how much clearer I can be than that.
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