From Catholic Answers:
The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”).
The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind.Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present.
So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.
If she was conceived sinless and lived a sinless life, then she didn’t need a savior.
And so she lied when she called God her savior.
ooops....
Well, let’s go to the Greek interlinear. [http://interlinearbible.org/luke/1-28.htm]
“favored one”. That doesn’t even include the inserted “highly” or “full of” that the RCC likes to inject.
Then maybe you would say the King James is a “recent version”?
Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
>>In fact, Catholics hold<<
Catholics can “hold” anything they want. If it doesn’t agree with or can’t be found in scripture I’m not going to risk my eternal future on what “Catholics hold”.
“Ave Maria” is a bit like “Ave Caesar. “ Which is why the painters have Gabriel kneeling before her. Anbyway, none of this has much to do with Mary and everything to do with expression of hatred for the Church. Some of it is unhinged, right?
What is grace to a catholic?
Is it Gods favor which is given freely whether deserved or not?
Is it some sort of ethereal substance?