Posted on 01/03/2012 3:30:48 PM PST by Gamecock
When posting something in a foreign language on the Religion Forum be sure to include the English translation unless the phrase is commonly known.
So Peter acting in the place of God can forgive anyone their sins, and their sins will be forgiven...But after Peter judges someone and doesn't want to forgive their sins, why does Peter have to retain their sins for them???
Iscool: Did you just call me a dirty name???
More examples of the fallacy of false interpretation. Jumping to conclusions without due reading is what I read in Iscool's posts all the time.
This question is so ignorant that it doesn't even deserve a reply.
It lacks a translation. It is a logical fallacy found in all rhetoric textbooks.
I didn't say what it means...What do those verses mean to you???
well, some things are not good enough for some folks...
I don't need to look it up...Post in English...
I was...I was also baptized with the Holy Spirit...And Jesus was also...Why haven't you been???
It doesn’t have a translation.
Ignorant??? You don't have the original Greek...You've never seen the original Greek...And you don't know anyone who has ever seen the original Greek...
So what does that make you???
That likely explains why you are familiar with it and I am not...
I already said. Read the passages from the Church Fathers that I posted. That’s what they mean to me.
Scriptural verses must be understood in the light of their contradictory verses on an equal playing field.
Romans 3 doesn’t take priority over Romans 2 or James 2 for that matter.
I see a distinct Gnostic dualism in the false Protestant opposition of faith and keeping the commandments.
What matters is the heart of the individual and why they do works. Self-righteous works are dead works and are fruits of a dead faith.
So what makes a living faith versus a dead one? Answer that.
The reason I included all those Scriptures in context is that I do indeed recognize the "real presence" - the body of Christ which entails all of us who are alive in Him:
But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. - Romans 8:9
Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. I am the vine, ye [are] the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without me ye can do nothing. - John 15:4-5
What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost [which is] in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? - I Corinthians 6:19
Both of those are doctrinal terms.
Bottom line to me, whether one embraces transubstantiation, consubstantiation or symbolism (whether a formal Shabbat or other remembrance when assembled together) - what is happening is not strictly physical and there is symbolism to teach us.
For instance, Melchizedek presented both bread and wine to Abraham:
Give us this day our daily bread. Matt 6:11
I am that bread of life. John 6:48
It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, [they] are spirit, and [they] are life. John 6:63
Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life. John 5:24
No, it does not lack a translation. It means “you, too” in Latin. And the logical fallacy is hypocrisy - that a person is doing what he is accusing the other of doing.
Better question: How do you dare to deny it knowing that God hears you? Characterizing Protestants as stupid and lazy is all sweetness and light, is it?? Seriously????
The closest vernacular would be “So’s your old man!”
Cute interpretation, Cronos.
Well said, Theo.
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