You could stop wondering if you bothered to ask us. We could easily answer that question.
Of course, that would mean you would actually want to learn something about Mormonism. Bad-mouthing someone else's religion without bothering to learn anything about it is so much more fun, though
Well you assumptions aside as to my knowledge of lds doctrine and beliefs.
The RLDS (later renamed) does use the j.s. “translation”
That you have an answer does not change that the question is valid, IF jst exists and is newer and more correct why use the KJV that was made by “Ignorant translators, careless transcribers, or designing and corrupt priests have committed many errors.” (DHC, vol. 6, p. 57)
That you believe that as I do not agree with you I can not understand your position is a conceit and a common one for the lds (and many many others..)
Of course you may bluster and froth and claim I do not know much (as you did in your response) but the question remains if jst is newer and more correct (as j.s claimed all his works were) why not proclaim it and use it.
PLEASE!!
Post some MORMON truth and quit badmouthing those who you say are badmouthing you!
The excuse used for the LDS not using the JST (or only a few verses) is that he did not complete it.
The reality is (but most Mormons would rather repeat the pat answer than actually RESEARCH it) is that Smith DID complete it, but Emma Smith (not BY) had the copyright so the SLC branch could not use the JST in full. However, that is no longer an issue as it is now in public domain.
The reason they have not now adopted it (like the RLDS/CoC) is that Biblical Scholarship has proven that Smiths translations are completely incorrect and fraudulent.
FWIW, I know A LOT about Mormonism and have researched it more than most LDS members.