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Mary the mother of Jesus was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace.

Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “. . . and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior. .

Actually, Kelly4c, that single word is one of the places where the bible does say Mary was immaculate.

See, although most concordances DIRECTLY LIE and claim that the Greek word is “charitou,” the word is actually, “Ketocharitoumene,” meaning “completely filled with grace.”

Not just “full,” but “completely filled.” As in, “lacking none.”

Now, if Mary hasn’t ALREADY BEEN SAVED, she’s under condemnation to eternal hell. That’s pretty lacking in grace isn’t it? How can one be “completely filled with grace,” while still so utterly depraved as to merit eternal hell? Nobody else in the bible is ever called “ketocharitoumene.” No-one. Because no-one else is so filled with grace.

And please not, that “completely filled with grace” is actually a past tense verb, not just an adjective. This means her salvation has already occurred BEFORE she conceives Christ.

So yes, the word you pointed out PROVES the case that Mary WAS spared original sin.

"Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God just as the rest of us do. Mary herself understood this fact, as she declared in Luke 1:47, “. . . and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior. ."

Luke 1:47, “. . . and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior. .

How can she call him "my savior" as in the present tense unless she was Immaculately concieved(saved from sin) to bear the divinity who became man. Remember the angel did not rip the curtain after Christ expired on the cross. Not yet. That action signified absolutely the old testament works system was over. But it did not happen until later from this statement.

So the old testament system was still in effect until that moment with the angel. She had to be sinless to bear the most High and Holy God that people died from being sinful in the past.

Thus she speaks" My Savior" as in the present tense being it already happened.

http://www.scripturecatholic.com/blessed_virgin_mary.html#the_bvm-IIhttp://www.scripturecatholic.com/blessed_virgin_mary.html#the_bvm-II