[Cronos]

In what way did Hindu or Buddhist thought — neither of which seems to make either mind or reason even topical — shape this outcome?

I personally believe that it did influence the thought process -- a return to nothingness. It is quite a difficult concept to think of 0 and imaginary numbers (-1, i, pi etc.) and would not make sense to the practical Romans, while the Greeks were more interested in purity of numbers.

There are quite a few myths about Pythagoras, so it's difficult to separate myth from fiction. Even Egyptian thought can probably be classified as "western" -- because the entire Mediterranean basin was really one "continent" until the advent of Islam.

No worries for the little monologue -- I like reading history and linguistics. But the key point I would like to make is that even taken coldly logically, in my opinion Judeo-Christianity makes more "sense" than any other religion bar Zoroastrianism

[betty boop]

I personally believe that it did influence the thought process — a return to nothingness.

Weird. For I didn't realize that "zero" — 0 — represented "nothingness."

Until you suggested it, that is. But I still don't have a clue what you mean!

To me, at the very least, zero stands not as representing "nothing," but as an indispensable place marker.... That is, it is a "something," not a "nothing."

I am quite sure that my dearest sister in Christ Alamo-Girl can explain this far better than I can. :^)

I only "dabble" in "the Maths"..... She has the genuine gift. :^)