For most purposes, the KJV is good. As I understand it the LDS group uses a different translation or an edited version of the KJV, is that correct?
The popular lds version is the KJV but with added footnotes from smith's "inspiried" so-called 'translation' of the KJV which was suppose to have 'fixed' all the corruption of the bible over the ages. Known as the JST or inspired version (IV), the RLDS/Church of Christ owns the copyrite to it, but allows LDS to footnote etc. The JST is an academic horror story to the so called prophetic power of smith and his 'version' contradicted the existing lds scriptures. Infact, iirc, even the POGP (Book of Moses) was 'edited' after bring'em young's death to fall in line with the JST's "translation".
PD's question is worthless - good biblical scholarship goes back to the extant Greek and Hebrew texts that the various translations are based upon. Some mormons must also believe that these extant MS are also 'translated' with a peep stone given their ignorance of the subject.
The LDS use the KJV, but with footnotes from the ‘inspired version’ (Joseph Smith’s rewriting aka the JST).
The RLDS (now Community of Christ) which is the group that stayed in Missori and didn’t follow Young and also renounced polygamy uses the JST exclusively. Copies are available online if you are interested. Just google “Joseph Smith Translation”.
The LDS for many years claimed they didn’t use the JST because 1) it wasn’t finished) or 2) that they didn’t own the copyright (Emma Smith did).
However, the first one isn’t true because there are sources that state it WAS completed and the second doesn’t apply anymore as the JST is now out of copyright and in the Public domain.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Joseph_Smith_Translation_of_the_Bible
and another great page on prophets
http://www.mormonthink.com/prophetsweb.htm