You mean like the Catholic Bible which deliberately mistranslates passages like Genesis 3:15 where the translators replaced the personal pronoun *he* in the Hebrew to *she* to support their idolatrous doctrines of Mary?
Or perhaps 2 Corinthians 7:10 where the Catholic Bible mistranslates the word "metanoian" as *penance* instead of the correct *repentance*?
You need to be telling this to the Catholic contingent. They're the ones who dismiss the importance of Scripture to begin with in favor of tradition and then work with the translation of a translation. (Greek to Latin to English).
What do you consider *true faith* and how do you determine if you have it?
INDEED.
Excellent points.
Well, here's Genesis 3:15 from the Septuagint. Which pronoun do you mean? There's no "he" or "she" there, mm, at least in the Greek.
καὶ ἔχθραν θήσω ἀνὰ μέσον σου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῆς γυναικὸς καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματός σου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματος αὐτῆς αὐτός σου τηρήσει κεφαλήν καὶ σὺ τηρήσεις αὐτοῦ πτέρναν "
"Or perhaps 2 Corinthians 7:10 where the Catholic Bible mistranslates the word "metanoian" as *penance* instead of the correct *repentance*?"
If it says "penance", then you are correct. The translation is wrong. It means repentance, but in the sense of a fundamental change in the way one thinks from a bad way to a good way.
What do you consider *true faith* and how do you determine if you have it?"
Orthodox Christianity, of course. As for determining if I have it, well, for me it's sort of genetic. I guess I just "know" it. I can see it in others when they demonstrate an Orthodox phronema in the way the live their lives and an Orthodox praxis in the way they worship. There may be others. I don't know.
Which "he"?
Or perhaps 2 Corinthians 7:10 where the Catholic Bible mistranslates the word "metanoian" as *penance* instead of the correct *repentance*?
The NASB, which is the Bible version on the Vatican site, reads:
"For the sorrow that is according to the will of God produces a repentance without regret, leading to salvation, but the sorrow of the world produces death."
The Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible says "penence," as does the Old Vulgate (pœnitentiam), but the New Jerusalem and the New Revised Standard Veriosn say "repentance."
Since the D-R is a 16th century English translation of the Old Vulgate, the error was in the Vulgate and it wouldn't be the first one. Numeorus errors form the Vulgate were incorporated into the Textus Receptus and from there into the KJV and other Protestant Bibles.
What evidence do you have that translation errors in the Douay-Rheims Bible were deliberate? Were then the multitude of translation errors in the King James Bible similarly deliberate?