What evidence do you have that translation errors in the Douay-Rheims Bible were deliberate? Were then the multitude of translation errors in the King James Bible similarly deliberate?
Translating the personal pronoun in Hebrew that says *he* as *she* is a deliberate mistranslation.
I find it inconceivable that anyone could seriously think that the translators simply made a *mistake*, especially since the same mistranslation occurred in both the German Bible that Luther read and the English Douay-Rheims Bible.
If that were the case, the translators would have demonstrated such a level of incompetence in translation that the whole version should be ditched.
It cannot be anything BUT a deliberate mistranslation that doesn’t even deserve the label of *error* or *mistake* and is a far cry from not being sure of the meaning of a word which might have only a slight impact on the meaning of a verse.