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To: Deo volente; small voice in the wilderness
Explain the Immaculate Conception OF MARY, please. How were her parents NOT part of Adam's original sin?

Her parents WERE "part of Adam's original sin", as you put it. She, however, was given the singular grace of being preserved from original sin at the very moment of her conception in the womb of her mother, St. Anne. This gift was given to her in anticipation of the graces her Son would win on the Cross at Calvary. It was a unique gift meant for a unique woman. Of course Our Lord was also free from original sin, since He is the Son of God and not subject to sin. That would be an absurdity. The angel Gabriel calls her "full of grace" in the gospel of Luke. She herself says that "all generations will call me Blessed", and that "He who is mighty has done GREAT THINGS for me..."

We have to remember that Mary needed a savior, just like every other human descendant of Adam. She was saved beforehand, however, "in view of the merits of Jesus Christ..." as the encyclical states. She was preserved from all stain of sin, due to her immense dignity as the Mother of God.

"... as the encyclical states." That's it! That's all the proof needed. No Scripture? No matter! We have the "infallible" word of a man and that is all we need.
2,639 posted on 07/27/2010 11:05:10 AM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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To: OLD REGGIE
"... as the encyclical states." That's it! That's all the proof needed. No Scripture? No matter! We have the "infallible" word of a man and that is all we need.

Well, um, actually, yeah. We've been saying that for as long as I've been on this forum. This is the first time you heard it?

I note that the controversial aspects of Acts 15 are glossed over hereabouts. I don't have to show (good thing, 'cause I can't) that my interpretation is correct. I think it suffices if I show it's plausible, and I think I've done that.

We could be wrong about the authority of the Church in Council, but I don't think we're as off the wall as some like to suggest.

Further, it is perfectly appropriate and dispositive to cite the encyclical when some of the brethren and sistren say we teach Mary did not need a redeemer.

2,642 posted on 07/27/2010 11:10:43 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (O Maria, sine labe concepta, ora pro nobis qui ad te confugimus.)
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To: OLD REGGIE; Deo volente

...so she was conceived sinless, or make that saved BEFORE she was Immaculately conceived, and born sinless and grew up sinless. No, that’s not right..she was saved before she was conceived, and grew up with pre-forgiven sin, so that she might be the “ark” for Jesus’s Immaculate Conception? Is this right? Did Jesus know that his mother Mary was Immaculately Conceived? What does the encyclical say about this? Or does it say anything about it?


2,643 posted on 07/27/2010 11:26:34 AM PDT by small voice in the wilderness (Defending the Indefensible. The Pride of a Pawn.)
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To: OLD REGGIE
"... as the encyclical states." That's it! That's all the proof needed. No Scripture? No matter! We have the "infallible" word of a man and that is all we need.

That's right! We have Tradition as well as Scripture, or didn't you know that?
That's pretty basic stuff. Jesus never told his apostles to write down a single word. He did, however, command them to TEACH all nations. St. Paul tells his readers to hold fast to the truths of the faith handed down, whether received by written word or by preaching.
2,646 posted on 07/27/2010 11:45:38 AM PDT by Deo volente (God willing, America will survive this Obamination.)
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To: OLD REGGIE; Deo volente; small voice in the wilderness

Yes, it’s just as implicit as the idea of the Trinity or Sacraments. Fundamental yet implicit beliefs


2,841 posted on 07/27/2010 11:10:05 PM PDT by Cronos (Omnia mutantur, nihil interit)
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