Posted on 01/05/2010 9:46:47 PM PST by the_conscience
I just witnessed a couple of Orthodox posters get kicked off a "Catholic Caucus" thread. I thought, despite their differences, they had a mutual understanding that each sect was considered "Catholic". Are not the Orthodox considered Catholic? Why do the Romanists get to monopolize the term "Catholic"?
I consider myself to be Catholic being a part of the universal church of Christ. Why should one sect be able to use a universal concept to identify themselves in a caucus thread while other Christian denominations need to use specific qualifiers to identify themselves in a caucus thread?
The second is "making it personal" because it focuses on the Freeper in claiming his source intends to deceive. It would not be making it personal to say "The source you used has been thoroughly discredited" or "The source you used is known for its lies."
And thank you so much for sharing your insights and those beautiful Scriptures, dear sister in Christ!
Ah, very well. So according to you, veneration of saints does NOT contradict Sola Scriptura, at least insofar that it is truly veneration and not worship.
The question still remains, where is even that watered-down version of Sola Scriptura, -- nothing essential to salvation and holy living can be outside scripture, -- in the Bible? (at this point you are excused muttering "give them Catholics a finger, they bite off the arm")
That baptism of children is without example is incorrect. When the scripture tells us "she got baptised and her entire household", the natural reading is that the children were baptised to regardless of age. We sure don't read "the entire household converted and therefore was baptized" (Acts 16:15, 16:33, with slight variations). What we have here is the idea of sponsorship: the parent or another believer undertakes to bring the children in the faith, and that allows baptism of children. You start with the assumption that for baptism to have an effect independent of the faith of the baptisee is "works based", and allow that assumption to cloud your reading.
We see no priests in the NT
"Presbyteros" is "priest", numerous occurences.
nor any instruction or example of church officers taking confession.
That was my point, there is no example. The Church developed the norm regaridng the secrecy of the confessional on the general authorization to "bind and loose" in matters pertaining to salvation (and the rule of scripture was not mentioned in it). But the instruction certainly is there, John 20:22-23.
This is where we agree, because that part IS in the scripture: conversion of an adult makes baptism of an adult, and of his children, possible.
That conversion is in itself a new birth contradicts John 3:3-5, where "birth of the water" is spoken about in the context of being born again.
ph
INDEED.
And in India.
What a come down from submitting to Christ Alone to submitting to a man and a club of bureaucratic political power mongers.
Sorry, I know it's late, but I cannot pass it up.
The Scripture says "μετανοειτε".
Morphologically, all it means is "change your mind". But is "repenting" disconnected from doing anything?
For one thing, in Acts 26:20 works of penance are mentioned specifically:
I preach, that they should do penance, and turn to God, doing works worthy of penance.
The call to penance (or repenting, or mind-changing) first came from St. John the Baptist. Well, what example did St. John give? A hairshirt, fasting, solitary living, mortification of flesh. The medieval monks with their penance did nothing the scripture did not tell them to do. They wore hairshirts, many lived like hermits, fasted and mortified flesh.
Then Jesus repeated the call to "mind-changing". What did Jesus do? He fasted for 40 days, went into solitude, and let His body be abused.
St. Paul advises us to mortify our flesh (he left us a lot about the salvific value of works in Romans):
if by the Spirit you mortify the deeds of the flesh, you shall live.
So, yeah, "do penance". Good translation that respects the context.
Knowing how the RCC idolizes suffering as a merit gainer, I shouldn’t have expected anything else.
I just read what’s’ written.
That’s how such stuff comes to be written.
I sorry. I wasn't even trying. :)
Is this an endorsement or confirmation of the principle of invincible ignorance? If not, how could any of them have been saved since none had a personal knowledge and acceptance of Jesus?
RnMomof7 is right in her answer. The elect of the OT and NT were all saved by the same method, grace through faith. The OT righteous may not have had as many specifics as we do today, but at core the OT God is the same as the NT God, so if one worshiped the true OT God, that was true faith in Christ.
Look, Mr. Rogers, maybe you've been hanging out with the Romanists too long because you're starting to sound like them in more ways than one.
Your posts are becoming increasingly dogmatic , sarcastic, redundant, looong, contradictory and non-responsive.
I give you five paragraphs about the sovereignty of God, a half dozen examples from Scripture, and link you to A.A. Pink's masterwork, "The Sovereignty of God." Your response is not to read it; apparently not even to glance at it. Instead you tell me to summarize it for you.
Hmmm... ok...
God is in control; not you. He always has been and He always will be. You have never been nor will you ever be.
And that is a very good thing for you just like it is for all who have been given true faith in Christ, for we are "His workmanship created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them." (Eph. 2:10.)
Esquirette pointed out that even our faith is a work made possible by God, as are all good things in us and by us. But you wrote...
"I have never said or suggested we are saved by works, UNLESS you call believing work"
Here Paul sets you straight by agreeing with esquirette...
"Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father" -- 1 Thess. 1:3
PD teaches that man - specifically the PDers - get to tell God what His purpose is, and He dare not do otherwise. The entire sovereignty crock assumes first that you get to define the will of God, and you get to do so apart from scripture
PD? As in FW?
"Sovereignty crock???"
Calvinists don't define the will of God; God does, regardless whether men know that or not.
Whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ" -- 2 Thess. 2:13-14
"And he said, Unto you it is given to know the mysteries of the kingdom of God: but to others in parables; that seeing they might not see, and hearing they might not understand." -- Luke 8:10 "But we are bound to give thanks alway to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:
Did you get that in 2 Thess. 2? "Chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and (through) belief of the truth."
Men don't sanctify themselves, nor do they give themselves faith nor the ability to believe. Men must first be born again by God.
And that's His call. Faith is the instrument God uses to bring His own to Him. "Saved by grace through faith." Grace saves.
We have not chosen Him; He has chosen us. If you think it was your idea, tell it to Him.
There were only three Arminians I've known on this forum who spoke as negatively as you about Calvinism. Two are now Calvinists and one got kicked off the forum.
May God utilize His "sovereignty crock" to lead you to the better fate.
Thank you my friend, and the same back to you.
Amazing who few people read Scripture.
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.