BUMP for later....
Posted on 09/13/2002 9:43:07 AM PDT by truthandlife
That's not the same thing as saying He wasn't annoyed with their other perversities at all. It merely speaks to the root of them.
There's your proof.
Did God destroy the poor and needy when he destroyed Sodom and Gormorrah? The story doesn't say one way or the other. Maybe he did.
If there were any poor and needy in Sodom or Gomorrah, they were undoubtedly wicked as well. Abraham asked God to spare Sodom and Gomorrah if there were but 10 righteous there. There weren't. The only ones spared were Lot's family, which numbered 4. Easy math.
Were innocent people not destroyed in the great flood?
The biblical account gives us no indication whatsoever that there were any just people other than Noah and his family on earth at the time. Gen 6 says that every imagination of man's heart was evil continually. Only Noah found grace in God's sight.
I suspct they will next hijack "Cake Soaker" . . . or "Cork Socker" . . . maybe even "Coke Sacker"!!! ;-))
BUMP for later....
Thanks for your reply. You say that there is "no doubt" in the meaning of the words of Gen. 19. Fair enough. Where in those words does God say that the reason for
the destruction of Sodom is homosexuality or sexual perversion? Clearly, the decision to destroy Sodom was made BEFORE the arrival of the angels, and hence,
before the attempt to have relations with them. Thus, that episode couldn't have been the reason for a decision that had already been made. There is absolutely
nothing in Gen. 19 that specifically gives homosexuality as the reason for the destruction of Sodom. If you disagree, point out the passage that does say that.
What you are confirming for me is that you seem to think the behavior by the people of Sodom and Gomorra on the night in question, was a one time anomaly, certainly not indicative of a lifestyle rampant with homosexual perversion. For the record, I believe that Lot's story reflects not only a collective lifestyle embracing the homosexual lifestyle, but one that had progressed to the point that public rape was jubilantly practiced as a norm. We're obviously not talking about one incident. We're talking about direct evidence of an abominable civilization which accepted and practiced perversion as the norm.
In your haste to dismiss what is undeniable, you seek to raise a red haring issue that is simply unsupportable.
I guess you don't like Ezekiel, or at least, what he "thought." But Ezekiel was a prophet, delivering the word of God, and he clearly states that Sodom's great sin was
it's neglect of the poor and needy. Deal with it.
Well, I guess you don't like reality.
Yes Ezekiel was a messenger of God. Yes he did mention issues that were also important. But he also mentioned the abominations. Once again, you cannot show where the poor were spared. Tell me what their sin was if not to join in the abominations. You can't, so I guess you'll have some "dealing" to address yourself.
Yes, the passage does mention other "abominable" actions. But it doesn't say that those other actions had anything to do with homosexuality or sexual perversion.
Maybe the inhabitants of Sodom consumed shellfish, which is also considered an "abomination" in the book of Leviticus. Or maybe they failed to observe the
Sabbath. It simply doesn't say. But what it does say is clear - and Gen. 19 offers absolutey no contradiction - that the great sin of Sodom was neglect of the poor
and needy.
An abomination was provided for you. Any community that would do what this community did, had clearly adopted abominations that were unmistakable. In light of this you ignore the obvious and look to shellfish, the Sabbath or other unmentionables. Why? What's you agenda here?
Did God destroy the poor and needy when he destroyed Sodom and Gormorrah? The story doesn't say one way or the other. Maybe he did. Were innocent people
not destroyed in the great flood?
As for the flood we are told there were only eight holy people on the face of the earth. Noah and his family warned people for 120 years. They were laughed at and scorned. Nobody joined them.
In the story of Sodom and Gomorra we are told that even to look back on the two cities would cause death. Great detail was given to demonstrate the utter thorough depravity that had infested the two cities. Every quarter of the city was involved. That is specific and excludes the possibility that the poor were innocent. Therefore there is only one abomination that could have caused the destruction.
God wasn't going to destroy the poor innocent people right along with the haughty rich.
The problem for both of you is that you simply misunderstood what you've read. You posted line after line from Gen. 19, and some of them refer to homosexuality,
but nothing you posted gave that as the reason for the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah. Get over it.
Let me see, you read an account encompasing the attemped abduction and rape of two angels from heaven, then the utter destruction of two cities full of people who to a man approved of this, then dismiss the only account of abomination contained in the story. You seek to dismiss that account as a one-time error that in no way specificied what abominations inflicted the communities, then tell me I and another person simply misunderstood what we read.
If you truly do think I'm confused, I thank God for that confusion. For if your clarity is the only alternative, the only true and shining light, I will bask in darkness along with Lot and his daughters.
45 posted on 9/13/02 12:12 PM Pacific by Col. Forbin
So it's come to dismissing certain passages and accepting others has it? Somehow it always does with folks like you. The Bible is the holy written inspired Word of God. All of it.
So sorry to hear about your case.
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