Here’s the thing, as far as I am concerned.
A man gets parental rights by being married to his children’s mother.
If she is unmarried, and say, wants to give the child up for adoption, the father should have no say.
So what happens if he wants parental rights but the woman will not marry him?
Nor am I clear about its implications. It seems, in the matter of fatherhood, to reduce the child's natural rights to a theoretical zero.
As I gather from your brief explanation, the child has no "stake" in his matter: has no claim (based on justice or truth) to derive either support or identity from his natural father.
But perhaps I've miunderstood you. Is this correct?
She can already murder their baby without his say so. You're just feeding into that sickness.
Wow.
That’s messed up.