Nor am I clear about its implications. It seems, in the matter of fatherhood, to reduce the child's natural rights to a theoretical zero.
As I gather from your brief explanation, the child has no "stake" in his matter: has no claim (based on justice or truth) to derive either support or identity from his natural father.
But perhaps I've miunderstood you. Is this correct?
The child has the right to support from the father. The father has no rights without marriage to the mother.