Posted on 09/01/2010 2:31:51 PM PDT by ventanax5
The notion of a Palestinian people and Palestinian identity, although taken for granted today, has neither a long nor a distinguished history. Understanding its origins and what it represents explains why the peace process between Israel and the Arabs has failed and will continue to fail.
Inherent in Palestinianism, from its origins, is the rejection of a Jewish state in any form. That opposition is not negotiable and not open to compromise; it is essential.
Palestinianism was never for anything; its raison d'?tre was to prevent the establishment of a Jewish state. That purpose has never changed.
Concern for Palestine among a few Arab intellectuals, as Columbia University Professor Rashid Khalidi shows in his book on the subject, did not exist until Zionists began settlements at the turn of the century. Most weekly newspapers from that period which he surveyed were not even from Palestine and had scant distribution.
(Excerpt) Read more at americanthinker.com ...
Here is a thought: “Palistinians” cannot even pronounce the word in Arabic. Arabic does not have the “pey/fey” like Hebrew and Greek/Latin languages. The cannot pronounce the “P” sound. So they call themselves “Falistini” (as in “Philistines”). A non-people claiming a non-country as their own! Move them to Jordan.
“Palestinianism was never for anything; its raison d’?tre was to prevent the establishment of a Jewish state.”
A country can’t be founded on hate. Even though the Holocaust provided alot of impetus for the creation of Israel, its people wanted a nation more than they hated the Nazis. That’s why they’ve prevailed, and always will.
While it is true that official cartography (i.e., The Roman Empire) showed Judea in 55 B.C., by the 3rd Century A.D., Judea was replaced with Caesarea and other incidental 'cities' all encompassed within Palestina approximating the Jordanian Border today.
So, it would be helpful in the desire to claim ownership to any land, anywhere, that someone at least lay out the true succession in possession.
Now others can argue whatever they like theologically as to whose temple begat whose mound first but geographically, Palestine was recognized as a place.
Who owns it is open to conjecture, and like our poor excuse for a potus, I have no opinion on the legitimacy of the claims.
Move along for pete's sake, or moses, or hammered.
The British chose to call the land they mandated Palestine, and the Arabs picked it up as their nation’s supposed ancient name, though they couldn’t even pronounce it correctly and turned it into Falastin a fictional entity. [In an article by Sarah Honig, Jerusalem Post, November 25, 1995]
So??!! ...”Where did the name Palestine come from?
The name Palestine refers to a region of the eastern Mediterranean coast from the sea to the Jordan valley and from the southern Negev desert to the Galilee lake region in the north. The word itself derives from “Plesheth”, a name that appears frequently in the Bible and has come into English as “Philistine”. Plesheth, (root palash) was a general term meaning rolling or migratory. This referred to the Philistine’s invasion and conquest of the coast from the sea. The Philistines were not Arabs nor even Semites, they were most closely related to the Greeks originating from Asia Minor and Greek localities. They did not speak Arabic. They had no connection, ethnic, linguistic or historical with Arabia or Arabs.
The Philistines reached the southern coast of Israel in several waves. One group arrived in the pre-patriarchal period and settled south of Beersheba in Gerar where they came into conflict with Abraham, Isaac and Ishmael. Another group, coming from Crete after being repulsed from an attempted invasion of Egypt by Rameses III in 1194 BCE, seized the southern coastal area, where they founded five settlements (Gaza, Ascalon, Ashdod, Ekron and Gat). In the Persian and Greek periods, foreign settlers - chiefly from the Mediterranean islands - overran the Philistine districts.
From the fifth century BC, following the historian Herodotus, Greeks called the eastern coast of the Mediterranean “the Philistine Syria” using the Greek language form of the name. In AD 135, after putting down the Bar Kochba revolt, the second major Jewish revolt against Rome, the Emperor Hadrian wanted to blot out the name of the Roman “Provincia Judaea” and so renamed it “Provincia Syria Palaestina”, the Latin version of the Greek name and the first use of the name as an administrative unit. The name “Provincia Syria Palaestina” was later shortened to Palaestina, from which the modern, anglicized “Palestine” is derived.
This remained the situation until the end of the fourth century, when in the wake of a general imperial reorganization Palestine became three Palestines: First, Second, and Third. This configuration is believed to have persisted into the seventh century, the time of the Persian and Muslim conquests.
The Christian Crusaders employed the word Palestine to refer to the general region of the “three Palestines.” After the fall of the crusader kingdom, Palestine was no longer an official designation. The name, however, continued to be used informally for the lands on both sides of the Jordan River. The Ottoman Turks, who were non-Arabs but religious Muslims, ruled the area for 400 years (1517-1917). Under Ottoman rule, the Palestine region was attached administratively to the province of Damascus and ruled from Istanbul. The name Palestine was revived after the fall of the Ottoman Empire in World War I and applied to the territory in this region that was placed under the British Mandate for Palestine.
The name “Falastin” that Arabs today use for “Palestine” is not an Arabic name. It is the Arab pronunciation of the Roman “Palaestina”. Quoting Golda Meir:
Excerpt source:
http://www.palestinefacts.org/pf_early_palestine_name_origin.php
But Obama said today that everyone wants a two-state solution.
I have heard this before. And if you check some historical writings, Palestine was coined by the British in the 1800’s to be interpreted from the Latin Palestina, in order to establish their ownership back to the time of Christ, which is utter hogwash. I believe they were the Philistines...
It was the Romans that first named the Land “Palestine” -(for the Philistines, who were Phoenician), and as part of the Roman purge of the Jewishness of the Land.
If you’d like to be on or off, please FR mail me.
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Not much of a thought, more like a mental belch.
For a long time Filipinos have trouble with the name their country was given. The "Ph" or "F" sound isn't native to their language.
Haitians can't pronounce the "h" sound that begins the name of their country in English. It doesn't mean that they're a non-country or a non-people.
Your mental belch ignores the fact that there is no such thing as Palestine, or Palestinians.
Inherent in Palestinianism, from its origins, is the rejection of a Jewish state in any form. That opposition is not negotiable and not open to compromise; it is essential. Palestinianism was never for anything; its raison d'être was to prevent the establishment of a Jewish state. That purpose has never changed.
That is why I referred to the “Latin”.
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