Posted on 12/29/2002 9:23:52 PM PST by PFKEY
Hope no one minds the vanity too much.
I was thinking last night about this idea and was trying to make it jive somewhat with the notion of predeterminationalism if that is the correct word.
Also was curious regarding what the various Christian denominations taught on this subject.
Ain't that the truth!
When I say I don't believe in reprobation, I mean I don't believe in unconditional positive reprobation. Whereas the Westminster Confession of Faith emphatically repudiates a conditional reprobation.
Not only does the WCF not "emphatically repudiate a conditional reprobation", the WCF emphatically teaches a Conditional Reprobation. Ch. III, sec. 7; ch. VI sec. 6; ch. XXXIII sec. 1&2. Do you even bother to read Protestant Creeds, or just repeat something that perhaps Karl Keating may have babbled in a moment of delirium?
The only way through that tension is to seek a doctrine that balances the universal nature of the free offer, free will and predestination. I believe this is where the Catholic Church, and many other churches are today.
ANY Religious Theory which proposes that an unregenerate Man will choose the God-pleasing option of True Repentance unto Jesus, is Biblically illegal in its violation of the Soteriological Law of Romans 8:8 -- you cannot propose that an Unregenerate Man will make a God-pleasing Choice.
Thus, only Calvinism (which teaches that Regeneration precedes Repentance) is Biblically legitimate.
If you imagine that such a belief is somehow inconsistent, you're being shallow in your thinking. You can't just assume Necessity of Equivalence between the modes of Election and Reprobation without working through the Logic.
Here's the scoop:
Election
Reprobation unto Eternal Death is conditioned upon a Man's Choice to Sin.
Election unto Eternal Life is conditioned upon none of Man's Choices (for the unregenerated man will always choose to reject God), but is Unconditionally effected by God Alone in his choice to regenerate some unto Repentance.
Sorry. I cut and pasted that from here: "British Reformed Journal, The Well-Meant Offer and Reprobation, Ron Hanko"
Unfortunately, they also deny the reality of Spiritual Death, as defined by the Bible according to the doctrine of Original Sin
Maybe you could tell me where they deny this?
Calvinism teaches Conditional Reprobation, and Unconditional Election. Catholic Church dogma:
GOD, BY HIS ETERNAL RESOLVE OF WILL, HAS PREDETERMINED CERTAIN MEN TO ETERNAL BLESSEDNESS (De fide)
This doctrine is proposed by the Ordinary and General Teaching of the Church as a truth of Revelation. The doctrinal definitions of the Council of Trent presuppose it . . . The reality of Predestination is clearly attested to in Rom 8:29 et seq: . . . cf. Mt 25:34, Jn 10:27 et seq., Acts 13:48, Eph 1:4 et seq. . . . Predestination is a part of the Eternal Divine Plan of Providence.
The RCC doesn't frame it's dogma in terms of eternal decrees, making it a bit difficult to compare.
That's what I thought too. You can't stop preaching even if election is predestined.
Let's test the matter here. (I'll cite some Council of Trent in a moment, but let's start with an example -- yourself).
Do you believe that an Unregenerate Man will ever "Believe", "choose God", "decide for Jesus", "Repent", or exhibit Saving Faith in any other such way?
God has also ordained the means of Election, namely preaching, See Romans 10:13-15.
The visible evidence of one's election is obedience.
Okay doke. I read the Hanko article. His language goes beyond Westminster, in a similar way to that in which Luther says "God foreknew nothing contingently". I don't think that's exactly correct; it would be more correct to say "God foreknows nothing as contingent in itself (for nothing exists independent of His decision to create), but only foreknows as contingent those things which He has decreed will be contingent upon Conditions which He has himself decreed".
It's a little more wordy (actually a lot more wordy) but is more strictly accurate and certainly more true to Westminster than is Hanko's wording, IMHO.
Which just goes to show, always check the Original Source. By the same token, don't necessarily believe me when I say "Roman Catholics teach that..."; ask for a citation from a Council or Papal Bull. A good discipline for all of us.
Anyway, getting back to my questions in 1506 and 1507......
Agreed
1Cr 1:21 For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.
You're not serious.
Are you?
Okay, if you hadn't already, go look up the definition of "aseity" and try to compose for me a post on how violation of the Aseity principle would overthrow the entire doctrine of Deity.
Maybe, you'll manage to correct your own mistake. If not, I'll offer my suggestions. But, you can have a go at it first; just attempt the exercise I suggest.
Best, OP
Sorry I took so long. Actually I was mostly serious. I could be seriously wrong, but I am not ready to give up yet. After reading several articles on Aseity, I know why my ideas are not readily received. I took the following statement from one of the articles because it doesnt sit well with me.
But it is obvious that the mutability implied in this belongs to creatures, and not to the Creator; and it is a strange confusion of thought that has led some modern Theists -- even professing Christians -- to maintain that such attributes can be laid aside by God, and that the Logos in becoming incarnate actually did lay them aside, or at least ceased from their active exercise. But as creation itself did not affect the immutability of God, so neither did the incarnation of a Divine Person; whatever change was involved in either case took place solely in the created nature.
Before I challenge this statement, let me point out that the last sentence actually gives me room for my original statement. Mind you, I do not challenge lightly. This forum has made me painfully aware of my ignorance.
1 Cor. 15:46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural; and afterward that which is spiritual.
First birth = natural birth Second birth = spiritual birth
First death = natural death Second death = spiritual death
First resurrection = natural resurrection Second resurrection = spiritual resurrection?
The order, natural then spiritual is established by I Cor. 15:46, and supported by many examples in scriptures: the first man, first manna, first bread, first Creation, firstborn son of at least four of the men in the genealogy of Christ in Genesis, the three examples above and more. The order of the trinity, birth, death, and resurrection, is established in nature and therefore implied in the spirit, because the invisible things of him being understood by the things that are made. There are no fewer than seven trinities with the same general structure in the first chapter of Genesis. Add to that the obvious correspondence to The Trinity, and more, and you begin to see a pattern, which runs through all Scripture and nature.
One nice thing about looking at the details of Scriptures is that there are so many of them. Individually they do not hold much weight but if you put enough threads together, you will come up with a threefold cord, which is not quickly broken.
I suspect that you disagree at this point because of one of your previous post.
(From post 773 on another thread.) Here you have Adam dying the second death first, and though it is appointed unto men once to die, you have him dying twice. (Adam died the first death more than 800 years later.) At this point, I need to stop and get your thoughts so I can decide which direction to go from here. Here is something for you to think about. If you accept these premises, the second resurrection, which is not mentioned in scripture, takes an interesting turn. The second resurrection, if there is one, would have to come after the second death.
Respectfully submitted.
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