There's nothing to apologize for. After all we accomodate those who mix Baseball and Hockey with religion.
Posted on 03/30/2002 7:53:37 PM PST by malakhi
| Statesmen may plan and speculate for liberty, but it is religion and morality alone which can establish the principles upon which freedom can securely stand. The only foundation of a free constitution is pure virtue. - John Adams |
Maybe malakhi or Invincibly Ignorant could help.
You have a refreshing attitude concerning Slick Willie and the war. Good luck with your army of one.
Like Palestine, WV is so big that their cards might end up going to some other Lynch family. LOL
SD
Dunno. With all the symbolism in Revelation, it could mean a lot of different things. To me, it sounds like the kind of things the Qumran community said about one they called "the Liar". If there is any connection here, "Jews who were not Jews" could refer to Jews who rejected the Torah.
Steven, look at some of the language in these passages (Revelation 2 and 3): "poverty", "rich", "throw...into prison" (similar to "cast down"), "Balaam", "Balak", "food sacrificed to idols", "immorality", "I know your works", "those...who say they are Jews and are not, but lie", "he who conquers I will make him a pillar".
This is not hellenistic Christianity!
sara, I began studying the book of Galatians this week, and this morning I found this, which I had somehow missed all these years.
Gal 3: 16. Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ. 17. And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.
My comments.
The original covenant to man was given to Abraham and his seed, (all mankind) who was neither a Jew nor had the law.
This covenant was confirmed 430 years before Sinai, and the covenant with Moses and the people of Israel did not void or disannul that promise to Abraham.
18. For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise. 19. Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
My comments.
If the promise can be inherited by keeping the law, then it’s not a promise, nor is it what God had given to Abraham.
Then why did God give Israel the Law? Because with out it, they and the world were becoming so corrupt, and would have digressed so far, that by the time of Christ and the fulfilling of the promise, it would have meant nothing to anyone.
The Law of Moses given at Mount Sinai, was the Old Covenant.
The coming of Christ to bring the covenant/promise of Abraham to the believers, is the New Covenant.
V-23, But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
My comments.
We are now those people to whom faith has been revealed which could not have been realized while we were still depending on the law to save us.
We can not be Abraham’s, or inheritors of the promise, unless we do it the same way Abraham did it, by having faith, not the Law. The law got the world through until the time Christ was to come. Now we are back under faith, the New Covenant, but actually the Oldest Covenant, since it existed 430 years before the Law of Moses.
JH :-)
This is correct, after Solomon the united kingdom split into the northern kingdom of Israel and the southern kingdom of Judah. The northern kingdom was the first to fall, with its 10 tribes being carried off into captivity (and thus into oblivion) or scattered. Some of these people fled to the south (archaeological evidence shows a sudden increase in Judah's population at the time the northern kingdom fell). Others fled elsewhere. Those who fled south blended with Judah's population, those who fled elsewhere or were taken captive disappeared from history. There are likely many people today whose ancestry could be traced in part back to these 10 tribes, and who don't even know it.
"Jew" is nothing more than the anglicized form of the word yehudi. It originally meant nothing other than someone from the tribe of Judah, but over time came to be used to refer to all Israelites. Think of it being similar to the way Hispanics use the term "Anglo" to refer to all people of northern European descent, regardless of their actual origin.
SD
The Greeks and Romans may just not have been able to pronounce his name properly. Latin doesn't even have a "J", and, if I'm not mistaken, the Latinized form is "Iesu", which is pretty close to "Yeshu", a variation of "Yeshua".
There are plenty of examples of anti-Jewish rhetoric in the Christian scriptures. Almost as if a philosemitic core of material was written down and edited from a very different viewpoint.
Remember, the gospels were written after Paul's epistles.
Not Peter, John and James, at any rate...
Hope these show up... :o)
There are plenty of examples of anti-Jewish rhetoric in the Christian scriptures.
Example?
Almost as if a philosemitic core of material was written down and edited from a very different viewpoint.
None of which addresses the fact, that the name of "Jesus" was not put forth to hide his Jewishness. And that the narratives in the Gospels leave us with no ooption other than knowing that Jesus was a Jew. He had to be, to fulfill Scripture.
References to the leaders who turned Jesus in, or to those who persecuted the early Church are not to be taken as indictments of an entire people.
SD
Yes, very telling language in those verses. I happen to believe John avoided thehellenization of that period. When he referred to "jews who were not jews" he probably meant those who say they are God's people but really arent.
Even Peter, John, and James used the name "Jesus" in their writings. Unless you think that they were edited later.
SD
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