[af_vet_1981]

Regardless of any answer I could supply, it remains that; the passage of NT scripture you had cited in post #61 does not in anyway falsify the statement -- which statement was;

No Jewish or Christian prayer is ever recorded in Scripture that addresses anyone but God.

Post 61 proved that aMorePerfectUnion's assertion was false. The rich man prayed to "Father Abraham."
aMorePerfectUnion did not qualify the assertion with "to anyone in heaven" so your assertion is false.

[MHGinTN]

You cannot be that dense ... where was father Abraham and where was the rich man? Really, the hoops catholic apologists arrange to jump through is sometimes actually comical ... sometimes.

[BlueDragon]

The rich man prayed to "Father Abraham."

In the parable the rich man did communicate and plead with Abraham, yet Abraham was not at that time in Heaven. To compare the mere communication and entreaty showcased within the parable as being truly prayer, to extent that that communication be indistinguishably interchangeable with "prayer", and could be passed on to God through secondary actors YET STILL BE ACCEPTABLE, by God, would be to rely too much upon less-than well-founded speculations as foundation, thus be form of lower order mistake (no pun intended).

That the prayer not be directed to anyone considered to be residing in Heaven renders the continual referencing towards your own reply at #61 superfluous, when considered in wider context of not only what you had replied to from #9 that had also contained this premise;

"5. No teaching in Scripture that a departed saint can hear a prayer from earth."

More to the point would be to say; "no teaching in scripture recommends praying to anyone other than Our Father in Heaven", as Christ himself did explicitly instruct.

It matters that in the context of this thread's original posting, reply #9 was posted to the OP's opening comment, #1. That greatly nullifies the [below italicized] escape clause you had created;

aMorePerfectUnion did not qualify the assertion with "to anyone in heaven" so your assertion is false

The statement made by aMorePerfectUnion, although not explicitly qualified to be restricted to "anyone in heaven" was still within context of --prayers to departed saints-- including prayer directed to "Mary" herself. Which is the subject matter of this thread, thus would not necessarily require the stipulated qualification.

Would you care to now concede the point, provided; if the qualification were to be explicit? Yes, or no?

The wider context I'm pointing towards here, was also made clear enough by daniel1212 having said in reply #88

The issue is not communication in this realm, but that of praying to created beings in Heaven, which nowhere exampled or taught, despite the Holy Spirit choosing to record approx. 200 prayers in Scripture.

Perhaps you'd concede that point, when worded as daniel1212 had put it? Yes, or no? Choose one.

In regard to your own comment @ reply #61 (and to whatever it was you were trying to establish) where does that leave us now?

Answer: That there was a parable used as teaching tool by Jesus Christ himself, that included there having been communication between individuals in differing realms ---within Sheol.