Posted on 09/22/2016 7:57:02 PM PDT by marshmallow
GERMANY, September 21, 2016 (LifeSiteNews) — The German Bishops have presented a new “Unified Translation” of the Bible that follows a significant modernization of the language and will be binding for all German-speaking areas starting in 2017.
On Tuesday, the German Bishops Conference (DBK) presented in Fulda the fruit of many years of scientific work: a new edition of the so-called “Unified Translation" (Einheitsübersetzung) of the Bible into German. It’s called “unified” because, from the original published from 1962 onward, these editions are supposed to be used ecumenically, unifying Catholics and Protestants in Germany. The original aim, however, was thwarted in 2005 when Protestants reverted to the Luther translation.
The leader of the research project was the bishop (now emeritus) of Erfurt, Joachim Wanke, who explained that the new edition is a “moderate revision” of the older text. Wanke added that a translation is always also an interpretation. The new edition shows more “braveness” to present “biblical jargon,” he said, reported by kath.net.
According to Jewish tradition, the personal names of God cannot be pronounced, so “Yahweh” is substituted by “Lord” in the new edition. In fact, every paragraph has a change, explained Michael Theobald, president of the German Bible Association.
When the apostle Paul calls two new followers, they are not two men anymore, Andronicus and Junias; rather, a new discovery showed that apparently it was one man and one woman, hence Andronicus and Junia. This led to the discussion that the word “apostle” must be applied to women as well as men (Author’s note: In German, different genders of the word exist and usually gender-ideologists insist on using male and female forms).
Other changes are more ideological.
Most frightening is the change to the iconic Isaiah passage (7:14): “The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son”.....
(Excerpt) Read more at lifesitenews.com ...
She was until she after she had Jesus. Then, married to Joseph, they had more children. No mystery here.
My Grandfather went to Southern Baptist Theological Seminary in the very early 1900s. He could read and translate both Greek and Roman but not Hebrew except just a few words. I know he had books about the dead sea scrolls and studied them.
He was also brilliant, having been elected to the Florida Senate at age 18. That by the way that is not the record. Doyal Conner beat his record by a few months.
I scored 98.7 on the Federal Service Entrance Exam yet Granddaddy was much smarter than me.
He told me that the King James Version was a better version than all that had preceded it. Some later ones may have found a word or two but overall it was a tremendous achievement. Nothing comes close in it’s majesty.
It is getting late I should have said Latin instead of Roman. He could make out some Hebrew And Aramaic too but not enough to translate.
As I recall, the Hebrew word in the original does not necessarily imply virginity.
Really??
What other children were traveling with St. Joseph and the Blessed Virgin when they returned to the temple to search for the Christ Chlld?
The bible does not note in the passage you refer to. But it does note their children in other passages. And please, don’t appeal to the Catholic talking points that brother can mean more than a family brother. The context of the text tells us Joseph and Mary had other children. The Greek also tells us this as well.
Many changes have been made to the Bible over the centuries. The last chapters of Mark wre added later, for example.
The end result was that especially the poetry books are master pieces.
For my daily reading I tend to go for NIV. Except for the poetry books where I switch to KJV.
The Catholic claim is based on what? The protoevangelium of James? A book not even the rcc would add to its canon at Trent.
“As I recall, the Hebrew word in the original does not necessarily imply virginity.”
Actually, that’s exactly what it does “imply”.
The Greek Septuagint (made before Christ) translates the word as “parthenos” (as in “parthenon”), which means simply “virgin”.
As the article notes, one problem in that unlike English, there are not a plethora of translations for Germans to compare with one another.
When they get the “official” translation, for most of them, that’s it.
I discovered the Septuagint a few years ago and find it even more informative than the KJV. The Greeks were more descriptive than Hebrew and the meaning was decided on by Jews and the proper Greek was chosen. If you are into prophesy in the Last days, the Septuagint is more descriptive and accurate. An example would be Amos 7:1 speaks of the king's mowings. Well, the king spoken of was Gog which the KJV doesn't speak of. There are many changes in Genesis that tell you more in the Septuagint than KJV.
It was my understanding it meant a woman who had yet to birth a child. Prior to Jesus’ birth, Mary was almáh.
I don’t understand your comment. The passage is from Isaiah, which was written in Hebrew. Many centuries later, it was translated into Greek. The Septuagint is not authoritative.
I don’t know any Hebrew. But my understanding is that the learned rabbis do not think that almah implies virginity.
If it is saying what I think it is, it's a common error that those who deny the Messiah is Jesus Christ mistranslate Isaiah 7:14 and the word for "virgin". They insist it means "young woman". I think this is ludicrous because that prophecy says the Lord God will give a sign. How is a young woman conceiving a child any kind of sign? Now, a VIRGIN, doing so certainly qualifies as a miraculous sign. So, yes, Mary WAS a virgin when she conceived Jesus - the incarnated God.
Wouldn’t you have to know Greek to read the Septuagint?
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