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I have yet to hear on this thread why it is so critical to the faith of Roman Catholics that Mary was a perpetual virgin. I’ve seen some say that it was to fulfill an OT prophecy in an allegorical sense, but that seems suspect.

Firstly, it is not just the faith of Roman Catholics; it is the faith of the one holy catholic apostolic church, and of Protestantism until it devolved in the modern era. The perpetual virginity of Mary asserts Mary's "real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to Jesus the Son of God made Man".[2][3] According to the doctrine, Mary was ever-virgin (Greek: ἀειπάρθενος aeiparthenos) for the whole of her life, making Jesus her only biological son, whose conception and birth are held to be miraculous.[2][3]

By the fourth century, the doctrine was widely supported by the Church Fathers, and by the seventh century it had been affirmed in a number of ecumenical councils.[4][5][6] The doctrine is part of the teaching of Catholicism and Anglo-Catholics, as well as Eastern and Oriental Orthodoxy, as expressed in their liturgies, in which they repeatedly refer to Mary as "ever virgin".[7][8][9] The Assyrian Church of the East, which is derived from Church of the East, also accept the perpetual virginity of Mary by titling her the "Ever Virgin", after the "Second Heaven".[10][11][12]

Some early Protestant reformers such as Martin Luther supported the doctrine, and founding figures of Anglicanism such as Hugh Latimer and Thomas Cranmer "followed the tradition that they had inherited by accepting Mary as 'ever virgin'".[13] Reformed teaching, however, largely abandoned it.[14][15] The doctrine of perpetual virginity is currently maintained by some Anglican and Lutheran theologians.[7][16][17][18] In addition, John Wesley, the founder of the Methodist Church, affirmed the perpetual virginity of Mary.[19]

So, to you Roman Catholics, WHY is this a dogma of the Roman Catholic church? WHY do you believe your faith hangs in the balance over this doctrine? I ask in all earnestness.

Why is it important to you (assuming it is) that the Hebrew word almah in Isaiah, Catholic chapter seven, Protestant verse fourteen be not only translated, but believed as virgin instead of young woman ?

What you have shown is the WHY of the belief, but not the WHY it is necessary to believe it.

Why is it important to you (assuming it is) that the Hebrew word almah in Isaiah, Catholic chapter seven, Protestant verse fourteen be not only translated, but believed as virgin instead of young woman ?

Because, unlike the immaculate conception and perpetual virginity, it is clearly and explicitly documented in the Gospels (thanks be to God for giving us His scripture through the Apostles, and for giving the early church fathers the wisdom for recognizing them as such).

You didn’t answer the question for all your verbosity.

And Isaiah 7:14 has NOTHING to do with the PERPETUAL virginity of Mary.

Why is it important to you (assuming it is) that the Hebrew word almah in Isaiah, Catholic chapter seven, Protestant verse fourteen be not only translated, but believed as virgin instead of young woman ?

Dang!

Did I just see the goalpost uproot itself and move to a different part of the field?

According to the doctrine...