Posted on 03/12/2016 9:36:07 AM PST by Salvation
Perpetual virginity
3/9/2016
Question: I am a lifelong and devout Catholic and have always considered Mary to be ever virgin. But recently, I read in my Bible that Joseph had no relations with Mary “before” she bore a son (Mt 1:25). Now, I wonder if our belief does not contradict the Bible.— Eugene DeClue, Festus, Missouri
Answer: The Greek word “heos,” which your citation renders “before,” is more accurately translated “until,” which can be ambiguous without a wider context of time. It is true, in English, the usual sense of “until” is that I am doing or not doing something now “until” something changes, and then I start doing or not doing it. However, this is not always the case, even in Scripture.
If I say to you, “God bless you until we meet again.” I do not mean that after we meet again God’s blessing will cease or turn to curses. In this case, “until” is merely being used to refer to an indefinite period of time which may or may not ever occur. Surely, I hope we meet again, but it is possible we will not, so go with God’s blessings, whatever the case.
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In Scripture, too, we encounter “until” being used merely to indicate an indefinite period whose conditions may or may not be met. Thus, we read, “And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death” (2 Sam 6:23). Of course, this should not be taken to mean that she started having children after she died. If I say to you in English that Christ “must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet” (1 Cor 15:25), I do not mean his everlasting kingdom will actually end thereafter.
While “until” often suggests a future change of state, it does not necessarily mean that the change happens — or even can happen. Context is important. It is the same in Greek, where heos, or heos hou, require context to more fully understand what is being affirmed.
The teaching of the perpetual virginity of Mary does not rise or fall on one word, rather, a body of evidence from other sources such as: Mary’s question to the angel as to how a betrothed virgin would conceive; Jesus entrusting Mary to the care of a non-blood relative at this death; and also the long witness of ancient Tradition.
Mary; mother of GOD.
That angel sure as **** didn't tell me THIS!!!
And sometimes the word isn't even in the verse...And yet you still try to use it...The word is 'unto', not until...
Believing that 'Mary and Joseph must NOT have had sex' - with no evidence! - simply reveals a colossal lack of understanding of what GOD intended for His creation!!
Joseph was a normal man (AFAIK); so WHY would Mary have placed HIM in such a TEMPTING situation for at LEAST 12 years??
1 Corinthians 7:5
Do not deprive each other except perhaps by mutual consent and for a time, so that you may devote yourselves to prayer. Then come together again so that Satan will not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.
Uh; not after THIS sentence!
Heck; the 'document' that Rome assembled; so long ago; shows just how BAD Catholic teaching was in Revelation Chapters 1-3!
Things got better in the SECOND century?
Who knew!!
Oh?
Joseph (OT) had some relatives that were not too trustworthy.
"A prophet is not without honor except in his own town, among his relatives and in his own home."
If memory serves, in Aramaic there is not a specific word which would be translated as sister or brother. Because the Koine Greek word used was from adelphos, the context is required to fully understand what is meant since the word is used for cousin, closest friend or brother. When the Bible has a passage stating that The Mother of Jesus and his brothers and sisters stood outside calling for Him to come out to them, we may be assured the term adelphos was used to signify direct relationship as to His Mother these with her were of her womb.
Matthew 27:56 Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA)
Among whom was Mary Magdalen, and Mary the mother of James and Joseph, and the mother of the sons of Zebedee.
So; you are contending that only ONE person in the bible was named JAMES??
Simon bar Jonas ... Simon son of Jonas
Afternoon naptime...
Us old dogs just awaken from sunning ourselves on the porch to bark at the occasional car going by.
Well...
Nothing from the bible
?
Can that be worse than Institutional Interpretation?
I wonder just how many folks, on a committee of some sort, have to VOTE in favor of a certain 'interpretation"?
Just more than half?
2/3's??
Or UNANIMOUS!!! like MORMONs...
Are you thinking of the magicsteeringthem?
So how many gates did Mary have??? Because those other verses talk of other gates as well...Assuming of course that your Mary is the sanctuary...
Man that is crazy...Mary isn't any where those chapters in Ezekiel...Fact is, Jesus is coming again...He's coming to Jerusalem...And he's going to enter at that sealed up East Gate...
So what's that mean to a Catholic...That the Holy Spirit will over shadow Mary again for the 2nd time???
You’re being a bit dishonest in what you’re posting.
It is not my intent to be dishonest. Metmom asked a valid question and I offered a possible explanation. I quoted only what was pertinent to my explanation because it was such a lengthy quote, most of which provided no context to my explanation. I provided a link so that anyone who was interested in reading the entire quote could easily access it. Here is the link again.
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/geb/view.cgi?bk=25&ch=44#2
I believe that if you state as indisputable fact that Mary did not remain a virgin, you have not reached the Truth. If you state it is your belief based on your honest interpretation of scripture, I have no problem with that, as long as you allow me the same courtesy.
Love,
O2
My opinion is indeed based in Scripture, just not on your interpretation of Scripture.
Love,
O2
“My opinion is indeed based in Scripture, just not on your interpretation of Scripture.”
It has nothing to do with interpretation.
There are no facts in Scripture that support your claims on this thread.
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