To: ealgeone
That is correct. The Greek does not support the catholic claim regarding Mary being given to "all of us". The pronouns used are singular and in the genitive. As noted in a prior post the adjective idia (one's own) indicates this is private, personal. HELPS Word Studies indicates this adjective is stronger than the simple possessive pronoun. For the catholic to claim this means Mary is given to everyone is reading something into the text that is not there based on the Greek. Are there scripture verses that you think apply to you, but by your own Greek rule (leaving the Hebrew aside for the moment) you are reading something into the text that is not there based on the Greek?
80 posted on
02/24/2016 7:56:24 AM PST by
af_vet_1981
(The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
To: af_vet_1981
81 posted on
02/24/2016 8:17:41 AM PST by
ealgeone
To: af_vet_1981
Are there scripture verses that you think apply to you, but by your own Greek rule (leaving the Hebrew aside for the moment) you are reading something into the text that is not there based on the Greek? Let no one read anything into meteorlogical happenings that can be construed as the mother of our Lord causing them.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Miracle_of_the_Sun
86 posted on
02/24/2016 11:54:50 AM PST by
Elsie
(Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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