Jesus told the woman that he saved from stoning to ‘sin no more’. Sodomy had previously been declared as a sin. Sin is sin. Useless analogy.
NYer, where does Luke say anything about baptizing babies?
What IS said in the New Testament is ‘repent and be baptized’, NEVER ‘be baptized and repent’. A baby has no ability to repent nor ask to be baptized.
And why do you think baptisms took place in rivers? Why not just bring out a bucket of water if ‘sprinkling’ is sufficient?
Check the letters of St. Paul.
You completely failed to get my point.
Jesus never preached about sodomy because it was NOT an issue. None. Everyone knew it was a sin.
From the time of Jesus until the Fourth Century, there is not a single mention of NOT baptizing babies.
That is evidence that it was NOT an issue. Only in the Fourth Century does ANYBODY make a point of NOT baptizing an infant.
If infants had NEVER been baptized, why would anybody in the Fourth Century SUDDENLY make an ISSUE out of not baptizing infants?
Only ADULTS are instructed to “repent and be baptized.”
Infants are not instructed at all. Nobody wastes time telling infants to “repent.”
But who said that repenting and being baptized are INSEPARABLE? Nobody. Ever.
Repenting is NOT part of the sacrament of Baptism.
The sacrament consists of immersion, or pouring or sprinkling water so that it flows, and saying “I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.”
Babies are born without grace, a state generally known as Original Sin. Baptism initiates the life of grace. The absence of PERSONAL sin in the baby is irrelevant.