Posted on 12/14/2014 11:57:21 AM PST by ealgeone
The reason for this article is to determine if the worship/veneration given to Mary by the catholic church is justified from a Biblical perspective. This will be evaluated using the Biblical standard and not man’s standard.
So, you equate pointing out error from Rome as PERSECUTING JESUS
This sick!
Only to the narrow minded bigots and addled minded.
What a fine EXAmple of Catholicism you are.
At that point in our story, Jesus is but a Promise to be fulfilled and He is the only reason there could or will be a Queen of Heaven, as I understand the math.
Math?
Nope...
In the beginning. ..
...was the WORD!
Mary will be ruler and queen of human hearts.[19]
Rank HERESY!
What are your particular qualificaDealtions?
Deal with the DATA NOT CREDENTIALS.
You vipers!
So?
Hail M-ry, Mother of GOD...
Evidently Rome failed to deal with DIVISION!
Look what happened to SEVEN of it’s early churches!!
(Cue the crickets)
You really SHOUld check things out before you post such bold statements.
Only if he releases his mighty grip on the Blathering Loudmouth title.
Indeed, as is the case even with Biblical magisterial authority, though disobedience to which could be a capital crime. Veracity is based upon the weight of Scriptural substantiation, which is how the church began, not the premise of perpetual magisterial infallibility of the stewards of Scripture and recipients of Divine promises. To claim perpetual magisterial infallibility and and as essential for correct determination and assurance of Truth is to have a false foundation, and presume autocratic authority.
No, he's not surprised. He quite well understands the corruption and lies the Catholic Church has inflicted. The Greek word you have been told translates to "church" is ekklesia. The Greek roots of that word are /ek, "out from and to" and /kaléō, "to call" – properly, people called out from the world and to God [http://biblehub.com/greek/1577.htm]
The Greek predecessor of the word "church" is kyriakē which means belonging to the Lord. It's used only once in scripture and that is in Revelation 1:10.
Undoubtedly the Holy Spirit understood the difference between ekklesia and kyriakē and did NOT use kyriakē when referring to the believers or where they assembled.
If you want to see who did use the Greek term kuriakê oikia which means “the house belonging to the lord” you can simply read up on the pagans who were speaking of "the house belonging to the lord" in reference to Mithra the “sun-god”. It's also not difficult to see how that corruption of the word ekklesia crept into the religion of Catholicism when you realize that Constantine was actual pagan with his god Mithra the "sun god". Ever wonder where all those sun bursts the Catholics use came from?
Those who truly want to know the truth can easily do some research to see how the Catholic Church incorporated paganism into their religion and corrupted what scripture really teaches.
Now that's FUNNY!!!!!!!!
The pot calling the kettle black.
Physician, heal thyself.
I find it incredibly ironic that the one with the WORST grammar is complaining about someone else’s.....
Acts 19:15 And the evil spirit answered and said, Jesus I know, and Paul I know; but who are ye?
That's a FALSE answer, wrong in itself and also falsely attributed to Catholicism.
If I had one favor I could request of my FReeper friends for the New Year, I would request that you refrain from making erroneous statements about Catholic doctrine, of which you manifestly do not have an adequate understanding.
I do try to do the same for other people's faiths; and when I fail in this respect, by attributing something erroneously to your creed or practice, please know I will appreciate a charitable correction.
Not as it's defined in Catholicism it's not. Nor are the examples you sited from scripture working for you're premise. You're first example taken from the Old Testament is the authority of the priests and judges of the Old Testament. That "hierarchy" can not be found in the New Testament "church". To inject the concept of "binding and loosing" into the edicts of judges and priests is a stretch. In the New Testament examples you used the "authorities" were secular authorities. If you can find that "authority" described within the ekklesia of the New Testament I would like to see it.
>>And even fathers and husbands are given binding and loosing power.<<
I would suggest you re-read your example from Numbers 30. Pay particular attention to the phrase "she has bound herself". The fathers and husbands were doing no binding or loosing. It was the woman who was held to her vow.
That would be the Jerome who included multiple proven translation errors into the Latin Vulgate from which the Catholic Church to this day includes in their "approved translations".
Well, maybe you would like to clarify for us. Do Catholics believe that it's faith alone which saves or faith along with works?
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.