“Yet I was more generous, acknowledging the time period between the larger 200+ year spans of recurring plague outbreak as a dry spell -— which would leave your initial statement part-right, but still part wrong, for plague had indeed entered Europe long before the “550 years later” which you initially pointed towards.”
And still that doesn’t effect my point in the least. The fact that it happened 200 years before Charles the Bald meant they were not worried about it. My point still stands. There was no plague in Europe. There wouldn’t be for 550 years yet.
Actually, it still does.(I can do this all day long, same as you)
Here, let me correct your last statements. Correction will be in bold.
There was no significant outbreak of plague in Europe during that time. There wouldn’t be again for 550 years yet.
Otherwise, if we were to blandly look at that pair of statements in original unmodified form;
would leave it suggestive that there was no plague in Europe previously, with that suggestion reinforced by the "for 550 years YET".
How can there be a [not] yet, when there was obviously a "before"?
Go ahead, go to the beach, enjoy yourself (if you can). But one hint --- do not throw bread crumbs or pieces, "upwind" to the seagulls.