Actually, it still does.(I can do this all day long, same as you)
Here, let me correct your last statements. Correction will be in bold.
There was no significant outbreak of plague in Europe during that time. There wouldnt be again for 550 years yet.
Otherwise, if we were to blandly look at that pair of statements in original unmodified form;
would leave it suggestive that there was no plague in Europe previously, with that suggestion reinforced by the "for 550 years YET".
How can there be a [not] yet, when there was obviously a "before"?
Go ahead, go to the beach, enjoy yourself (if you can). But one hint --- do not throw bread crumbs or pieces, "upwind" to the seagulls.
“How can there be a [not] yet, when there was obviously a “before”?”
Simple - the before was in a different era and under a different culture and had no bearing whatsoever on the century in question. The after was in a different era and culture from the before and had no relation either to the before or the century in question.
So, going back to the very original point made: “Who knew there were comedians running around as the Plague threatened Europe!” There was no threat of plague. No one there had seen the plague in well over 200 years. No one there would see it again for 550 years yet. My point still stands.