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Mark, I'm reading your post at Matthew 28:16-20. But have you read Matthew 23:1-3? "Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples. Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses seat: ALL THEREFORE WHATSOEVER THEY BID YOU OBSERVE, THAT OBSERVE AND DO: but do not ye after their works: for they say and do not." So it seems that the "Great Commission" Christ gave to Peter and the 11 contained legalism of the Pharisees. This is in Matthew.

So we move to Mark where we find the baptismal salvation and miraculous signs of Mark 16:16-18.

Then we go to Luke. Where we find the "Jerusalem FIRST" of Luke 24:47 and again in Acts 1:8.

And finally to John. Where the authority to remit sins in John 20:22,23 are given.

NONE of which, in ANY of these gospels are compatible with the gospel of the grace of God. Ephesians 2:8,9 and 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.

So, just what is it that the Church is to teach all men? Legalism of Matthew, signs of Mark, Jerusalem first of Luke, or remission of sins of John? Notice that ALL of these refer to Israel. And not until the gospel of the grace of God is given is there any hint that Gentiles had any hope of salvation in those 4 gospels of Christ's earthly ministry. Because we didn't.

"Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands: That AT THAT TIME (time past) ye were WITHOUT CHRIST, being ALIENS FROM THE COMMONWEALTH OF ISRAEL, and STRANGERS FROM THE COVENANTS OF PROMISE, having NO HOPE, and WITHOUT GOD IN THE WORLD:". When WAS this "TIME PAST"?? "But NOW IN CHRIST JESUS ye who sometimes were FAR OFF are MADE NIGH BY THE BLOOD OF CHRIST." Eph. 2:13. So if it's the BLOOD OF CHRIST that makes Gentiles nigh, then BEFORE the blood of Christ was shed, we were exactly what Eph. 2:11,12 says we were.

Please explain to me what the teachings of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John have to do with Gentiles, the Church the Body of Christ, and the gospel of the grace of God in light of the Scriptures. And how the "Church" is to teach all men today that which was given to Israel?

NONE of which, in ANY of these gospels are compatible with the gospel of the grace of God. Ephesians 2:8,9 and 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.

So, just what is it that the Church is to teach all men?

There is, though, none more legalistic than Calvin and his version of the medieval doctrine of imputed righteousness. It's possible that what appears to be so discordant to you in the Gospels with other portions of scripture is that way because of a fundamental flaw in understanding.

Please explain to me what the teachings of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John have to do with Gentiles, the Church the Body of Christ, and the gospel of the grace of God in light of the Scriptures. And how the "Church" is to teach all men today that which was given to Israel?

You keep making my points for me. The Apostles were to go to all men, teaching them about Christ and the Good News of salvation. You have repeatedly posted to the effect that you have embraced the religion of the Paulian, removed from Christ and stand-alone. If you do not believe that Christ came for all men and sent the Church to teach in Matthew 28, why then, how do you claim Christianity? If you believe that Paul (a created human being) has the path to salvation (as opposed to Jesus Christ who is God), then I am at a total loss as to how you can consider yourself Christian.

You bring up examples of early training of the Apostles. And well they are examples. Yet, this is training for them, not their eventual destination according to Jesus. These are like little children, who need to be educated away from the rabbinical Judaism that they were taught and into the whole thought process of Christianity, which is rather distant or opposed to many of the precepts of Judaism.

The Great Commission is given. Will you gainsay it?