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To: Theo; BenKenobi
The Deuterocanonical books are quoted in the New Testament: Matt. 24:15 - the "desolating sacrilege" Jesus refers to is also taken from 1 Macc. 1:54 and 2 Macc. 8:17.

Matt. 24:16 - let those "flee to the mountains" is taken from 1 Macc. 2:28.

John 10:22 - the identification of the feast of the dedication is taken from 1 Macc. 4:59.

John 10:36 – Jesus accepts the inspiration of Maccabees as He analogizes the Hanukkah consecration to His own consecration to the Father in 1 Macc. 4:36.

Acts 1:15 - Luke's reference to the 120 may be a reference to 1 Macc. 3:55 - leaders of tens / restoration of the twelve.

For more go to Deuterocanonical books in the New Testament

120 posted on 10/27/2011 9:41:31 PM PDT by Cronos (http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2787101/posts?page=58#58)
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To: Cronos

Newpapers also record historical accounts. But they do not carry the weight of inspired Scripture. Similarly, the Apocryphal books reference some historical events, but should not be considered to carry the same authority as Scripture.

You’re really stretching to say that Jesus actually “quoted” from Maccabees. He said things that may sound like what’s written in Maccabees, but he never “quoted” as authoritative the text. He never says, “It is written” and then follows that with a quote directly from the Apocrypha. He does, however, quote from the OT.

The Apostle Paul quotes pagan poets and writers (1 Corinthians 15:33; Acts 17:28). If simply referencing a text bumps it up into the realm of authoritative Scripture, then these Pagan texts are biblical as well. But in order to consider a text as Scripture, there’s a higher standard.

If Maccabees is to be considered inspired and authoritative, then suicide (for example) should be commended, as it is in 2 Maccabees 14:41ff.

If you consider the Apocrypha to be inspired and authoritative, then you will come to believe extra-biblical doctrines, such as Purgatory, indulgences, praying for the dead, and so on.

But it is not.

I just Googled this topic, and found some paragraphs that show the Apocryphal books as extra-biblical. Let me just quote those, rather than take time to write them myself:

The Apocrypha was used alongside the writings of the Church fathers. Manuscripts of the Greek Septuagint had them as an addendum to the canonical Old Testament. Philo a Jewish philosopher in A.D. 40 quotes from the Old Testament and recognizes the standard threefold division but never quotes the Apocrypha as inspired. In the 2nd Century The Jewish historian Josephus deliberately excludes it. He wrote: “The Jews had only twenty-two books that deserved belief, but those which were written after the time of Artaxerxes (the Apocrypha) were not of equal credit with the rest, in which period they had no prophets at all” (Lib. 1, Con. Apion.).

What makes this interesting is modern findings of the Dead Sea Scrolls. The scrolls in the Qumran caves date back to as early as 250 B.C. most are from 100-150 B.C.. Within the 800 scrolls, all the Old Testament books were found minus Esther, neither were there any of the Apocryphal writings. The more one is aware of Hebrew and there culture the less likely they accepted these books. Both Jerome and Origin knew Hebrew; the first Latin Bibles were translated from the Septuagint and included the Apocrypha. Jerome’s Vulgate had distinguished the Apocrypha as canonical and was assigned a secondary status. He at first refused to translate these books into Latin but later made a quick translation it was after his death they were brought into the vulgate from the Latin version.

The early church fathers were not supportive of its acceptance Polycarp, Ignatius , Clement mention the New Testament only as inspired. Cyril of Jerusalem, Athanasius as well as Origin and Jerome later rejected this. Athanasius is clear on what was accepted as scripture this was not the apocryphal writings. The Scriptures were spread out throughout the world and almost all that we have today is the same that was accepted in the 2nd century by the majority of the Church.

No Roman Catholic was required to believe that the Apocrypha was Scripture, until 1,500 years later at the council of Trent. Most believe it was Rome’s reaction to the new movement of getting back to the Scriptures that were God breathed....

By contrast to the possible and vague references to the apocrypha, the references to the Old Testament books are both clear, and more importantly they imply that those books carried divine authority. For example in John 10:34,35 the Lord Jesus quotes from Psalm 82:6, and immediately comments that the scriptures cannot be broken. For the apostle Paul, “it is written” (in the Old Testament books) was the sure ground for his doctrinal teaching. Thus the New Testament testifies to divine authority of the Old Testament. Significantly there are no such quotations to the apocrypha that imply divine inspiration of these books.


125 posted on 10/28/2011 7:09:50 AM PDT by Theo (May Rome decrease and Christ increase.)
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