For example
The NT was written in Greek, ok -- not all, but let's take your argument for the sake of argument. Remember also that the words of Jesus were mostly Aramaic or Hebrew or maybe even GReek -- we've already shown that in SEmitic languages like Aramaic/hebrew there is no differntiating term between a blood brother and a cousin, let's examine the GReek ouch outos estin o tekton o uios Marias adelphos de Iakobou Iose kai Iouda kai Simonos
If the term is that the adelphoi have the same mother then it would be ho adelphos But that is not used. Without the article adelphos is non-specific and non-exclusive and can mean kinsmen, relatives
Furthermore, I give you two examples of why He didn't have blood brothers of the same mother
He also had brothers, half brothers.
perhaps brothers from his father's earlier wife maybe, or more plausibly cousins.
Have you been to the Middle-East lately? A guy will call his cousin his brother. This is true of this clan society just as it was in the time of Christ.
More importantly, you have no proof that they were the children of Mary -- if they were, then why did Jesus tell John to take care of His mother? that's a classic affront if he had any brothers through Mary
you have no proof for your statement, there is nothing in the Bible that holds to your statement
Yet, let's look at scripture, in Luke 1:27 we read 27To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph == ok, so Mary's married to Joseph, yet in 1:34 we read How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
Huh? She's already espoused to Joseph, why should she be surprised that the angel says You will conceive and give birth to a son?
Note -- you "will" -- if she expected to have normal marital intercourse, she'd say "ok, I'm a virgin now, so I WILL have sex, conceive and give birth, big deal", yet she is surprised and asks "how? I'm a virgin" -- this does not make sense unless she was not going to have sex at all.