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“Mary did not save herself in any way — we believe that all of what she did or was was due to God’s grace. All Mary did was say ‘yes’. The grace was freely given by God, the protectino by God, everything by God, Her Son and Savior.”

Did the Angel ask Mary any questions??? Did God know thousands or millions of years prior to that, that Mary would be the Mother of Jesus???

Did you ever make a left turn when you really wanted to turn right, but by doing so avoided an accident???

Is writing a Latin word in the middle of an English language paragraph suppose to impress someone???

I wonder if you guys do that to impress each other on how much you study Latin (instead of using that time to study the Scriptures)...

The Italic subfamily is a member of the Indo-European language family. It includes the Romance languages derived from Latin (Italian, Spanish, Catalan, Portuguese, French, Romanian, etc.), and a number of extinct languages of the Italian Peninsula, including Umbrian, Oscan, Faliscan, and Latin itself. In the past various definitions of "Italic" have prevailed. This article uses the classification presented by the Linguist List:[1] Italic includes the Latin subgroup (Latin and the Romance languages) as well as the ancient Italic languages (Faliscan, Osco-Umbrian and two unclassified Italic languages, Aequian and Vestinian). Venetic (the language of the ancient Veneti), as revealed by its inscriptions, was also closely related to the Italic languages and is sometimes classified as Italic. However, since it also shares similarities with other Western Indo-European branches (particularly Germanic), some linguists prefer to consider it an independent Indo-European language, despite its influence on the modern Italian of the region.

Explaining terms to idiots who think they are cool, in English does not work as this is similar to banging one's head on a wall. They do not understand English or any other languages. One can attempt by trying to tell them that other languages exist, but it is a waste of time.

The main debate concerning the origin of the Italic languages is the same as that which preoccupied Greek studies for the last half of the 20th century. The Indo-Europeanists for Greek had hypothesized (see Dorian invasion, Proto-Greek language) that Greek originated outside of Greece and was brought in by invaders. Analysis of the lexical items of Mycenaean Greek, an early form of Greek, raised the issue of whether Greek had been formed in Greece from Indo-European elements brought in by migrants or invaders, mixed with elements of indigenous languages. The issue was settled in favor of an origin of Greek in Greece.

A proto-Italic homeland outside of Italy is equally as elusive as the home of the hypothetical Greek-speaking invaders. No early form of Italic is available to match Mycenaean Greek. The Italic languages are first attested in writing from Umbrian and Faliscan inscriptions dating to the 7th century BC. The alphabets used are based on the Old Italic alphabet, which is itself based on the Greek alphabet. The Italic languages themselves show minor influence from the Etruscan and somewhat more from the Ancient Greek languages. The intermediate phases between Italic and Indo-European are still in deficit, with no guarantee that they ever will be found. The question of whether Italic originated outside of Italy or developed by assimilation of Indo-European and other elements inside of Italy, approximately on or within its current range there, remains.

“I wonder if you guys do that to impress each other on how much you study Latin (instead of using that time to study the Scriptures)...”

Well considering as the Scriptures were mostly only in Latin for over a thousand years, understanding Latin would be at least beneficial to understanding scripture...

But do go on. Latin, after all is a dead language, and the only true language to understand scripture is English. Which is why Iscool has a first volume tyndale on his desk which he refers to regularly...