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To: marshmallow

“Because he is God” is not a statement declaring God has/can/or will ever suspend his divine and holy nature. As you rightly stated, this would go against the fundamental nature of God.

The rational mind concludes that if God’s Son was carried in the womb of a sinful woman, receiving genetic material from her, he would receive her sinfulness. But if you require that Mary had to be sinless to give birth to a sinless Son, then you would have to require the same of her mother, and her mother, etc. Not even Mary saw herself that way. Remember how she rejoices in “God my Savior” in Luke 1:47? If she was immaculately conceived without any sin herself, then she didn’t need a Savior!

This discussion is very similar to the following question:
If Jesus is true God, how could he die, for God cannot die?” These are questions we can’t answer but simply have to accept in faith.


74 posted on 11/30/2010 11:08:55 AM PST by Vegasrugrat
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To: Vegasrugrat; marshmallow
If she was immaculately conceived without any sin herself, then she didn’t need a Savior!

God saved her from sin, doesn't that make Him her Savior? In the first chapter of Luke the Blessed Mother speaks of her Savior in the present tense, this indicates that her salvation is already assured and not based upon some future event.

For Mary to be "blessed among women" doesn't that mean that she has is at least as blessed as Eve? Don't you think that the mother of God would be superior to the mother of Cain? The confusion comes in when some people try to equate sinlessness with divinity, but being sinless DOES NOT make a person divine. Mary says that her soul MAGNIFIES the Lord; a soul that is stained with sin can only obscure the Lord, not magnify Him.

God told Noah EXACTLY how to build the Ark that would carry those who would be given God's first Covenant. God told the Israelites EXACTLY how to build the Ark that would carry God's Covenant of the Law. God's greatest Covenant was the Body and Blood of His Son, wouldn't the Ark that carried Him also be of EXACTING requirements?

77 posted on 11/30/2010 11:43:09 AM PST by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: Vegasrugrat
But if you require that Mary had to be sinless to give birth to a sinless Son, then you would have to require the same of her mother, and her mother, etc.

Very good point which I have thought of often. No doubt the response would be, "God is God so he could form a sinless Mary in her sinful mother's womb." But when it comes to Christ somehow God is unable.

Weird.

90 posted on 11/30/2010 12:36:24 PM PST by Siena Dreaming
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To: Vegasrugrat; chesley
But if you require that Mary had to be sinless to give birth to a sinless Son, then you would have to require the same of her mother, and her mother, etc.

No.

It was precisely the Divine nature of Jesus which demanded a sinless Virgin. His Divinity is all holy and the source of all holiness. This Divine holiness can not, by its very nature, be countenanced by sin.

Mary was not Divine. She was human. The Church teaches that "through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, "full of grace" through God, was redeemed from the moment of her conception." Mary's humanity required that she too, be redeemed.

Incidentally, in light of what I've said here and up-thread, I think it's worth pointing out how the Catholic teaching on the Immaculate Conception of Mary, (contrary to what Protestants usually say) actually exalts the person of Jesus because it emphasizes His purity, holiness and Divinity. Contrast this with the Protestant idea that "any womb would do". Tsk tsk!

Ironic, no? In fretting about Mary's singular privilege and worrying that it may be taking something away from Jesus, you actually diminish Jesus by insisting that any "house of sin" or womb could have nurtured him for nine months.

93 posted on 11/30/2010 12:51:08 PM PST by marshmallow ("A country which kills its own children has no future" -Mother Teresa of Calcutta)
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