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To: Vegasrugrat
But if you require that Mary had to be sinless to give birth to a sinless Son, then you would have to require the same of her mother, and her mother, etc.

Very good point which I have thought of often. No doubt the response would be, "God is God so he could form a sinless Mary in her sinful mother's womb." But when it comes to Christ somehow God is unable.

Weird.

90 posted on 11/30/2010 12:36:24 PM PST by Siena Dreaming
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To: Siena Dreaming; Vegasrugrat
But if you require that Mary had to be sinless to give birth to a sinless Son, then you would have to require the same of her mother, and her mother, etc.

No. It is fitting that Mary be sinless to bear a Divine Son, the Son of the Most High God, Himself God. No one ever claimed divinity for Mary. "Sinless" means "without sin" -- not "Divine."

91 posted on 11/30/2010 12:45:42 PM PST by maryz
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To: Siena Dreaming
Consider that the ark of the covenant, old Testament, was built by a specific design that God made in order to carry the "Word of God" tablets.
Likewise, the Living Flesh Word of God, Jesus, that was carried by the living Ark, Mary, was also built by specific design. Her being sinless was a specific design requirement by God Himself.

The scriptural EVIDENCE is contained in the Gospel of Luke Chapter 1 verse 28. The angel addresses Mary as "full of grace". Grace is the key word. A sinful person is not full of "grace". The term grace here refers to a person being full of God.
Note: the angel's greeting occurs prior to Mary conceiving Jesus.
As far as how she was created without sin, well, God is not limited by time. Jesus did in fact "save" Mary, and His salavtion victory on the cross was applied to Mary at the moment she was conceived. All this to acheive God's design of the perfect Ark to contain the Word of God.
Praise be to God

97 posted on 11/30/2010 1:04:07 PM PST by UnRuley1
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