My other questions would
- who gets to say what the "clear" meaning of a text is, and
- when two texts appear to conflict which one must yield?
- when two texts appear to conflict which one must yield?-
Example?
I think a clear example would be the idea of justification by faith alone. Paul teaches this at numerous times and places...basing his arguments on Old Testament passages as well as logic. Therefore when we run up against a passage in James that says “faith without works is dead,” the interpretation which says James is saying faith + works equals justification (or life) must be wrong. Rather, we know that real faith....alone, without anything we do to merit it...brings AFTER it good works. In this case we take explicit passages (the several by Paul) to interpret a more implicit and isolated passage (by James).
This concept—of allowing the clearer, more detailed passages interpret the less clear—is basic to any kind of literary interpretation, and, it seems to me, quite a clear/perspicuous way to approach things—allowing a normal person of average intelligence to understand....what “perspicuity” implies.
As to who gets to make these decisions....I’d say the church in council....however, with the understanding that it’s judgement is not infallible. This is the underlying logic of the great Protestant confessions.