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My Journey Out of Dispensationalism
Sola Deo Gloria ^ | July 29, 2009 | PJ Miller

Posted on 10/20/2009 8:00:19 AM PDT by Gamecock

My friends have often heard me say, “The more I read my Bible the less dispensational I become.”

This statement comes from someone who was spiritually nurtured in churches with dispensational theology, who graduated from a Christian university steeped in dispensational theology, who received his first graduate degree from a dispensational seminary, and who—for twelve years—preached sermons that reflected dispensational theology. For the first sixteen years of my Christian life, I rarely questioned the fundamental distinctions of dispensational theology. What are those distinctions? In his discussion of what he called the “sine qua non of dispensationalism,”

Ryrie asserted:

“A dispensationalist keeps Israel and the Church distinct … . This is probably the most basic theological test of whether or not a man is a dispensationalist, and it is undoubtedly the most practical and conclusive”  (Ryrie 44-45).

Later he concluded:

“the essence of dispensationalism, then, is the distinction between Israel and the Church” (Ryrie 47).

As a dispensationalist I studied my Bible with the understanding that God had dual and separate plans for Israel and the church. I understood this “church age” to be somewhat parenthetical until God resumed His plan with the nation of Israel. I believed that the Abrahamic covenant and all the other Old Testament covenants were essentially for national Israel, and that only the soteriological benefits of the covenants belonged to the church.

As I continued to pastor and preach, I realized that my training in the Old Testament was weak. I decided to pursue a Master of Theology in Old Testament at Westminster Theological Seminary. My dispensational comrades in ministry assured me that Westminster would ruin my theology. I suppose many of them believe that has happened. Nevertheless, I was drawn to Westminster primarily because Bruce Waltke was teaching there. I had read books and articles by Dr. Waltke and had profited immensely from them.

While at Westminster I had the privilege of learning from Vern Poythress, Tremper Longman, and Raymond Dillard, along with Bruce Waltke. At first I listened as an antagonist, but I was soon won over by their personal graciousness and their commitment to Scripture. I began to experience discomfort as I realized that my commitment to dispensationalism was often unyielding, even when contradicted by the results of exegesis. These words from the introduction to my Th.M thesis summarize my response at that time:

Exegesis often eviscerates one’s theological presuppositions. When a theological bulwark withstands the penetration of biblical exegesis, its tenets remain secure. However, if its walls crumble beneath the weight of incisive and precise exegesis, then one must abandon the fortress and construct a better one (Davis, 1990, 1).

During the course of my study at Westminster, Bruce Waltke was my faculty advisor. I was privileged to have a number of personal discussions with him regarding the uneasiness I felt in questioning dispensationalism. As I considered what to research for my Th.M thesis, he suggested a topic that would be beneficial to me on my journey and helpful to others. I wrote “A Critical Evaluation of the Use of the Abrahamic Covenant in Dispensationalism.” The writing of that thesis opened a door and gave me a gentle push toward my eventual departure from dispensationalism.

As I worked through the exegesis of the Abrahamic Covenant and the hermeneutical issues surrounding it, I came to this conclusion:

Through an inductive study, this paper has arrived at a position that approximates covenant theology, namely, that that covenants confirm and explicate the program by which God redeems a people for Himself. It has been established that Israel and the church need to be perceived as sub-categories of a larger concept, i.e. the people of God. The Abrahamic covenant is not the beginning of the people of God, but rather God’s redemptive means, after the rebellion at Babel and the dispersion, to reclaim a fallen world to Himself. The Abrahamic covenant needs to be viewed in its relation to God’s purposes for the entire world, not simply His purposes for a nation. The Abrahamic covenant needs to viewed in light of the inauguration of eschatological times with the first advent of Jesus Christ, as well as the consummation of eschatology at the second advent (Davis 109).

Since those years at Westminster, I have continued to think about these issues and have become more and more convinced that exegesis and biblical theology do not support the sine qua non of dispensationalism (i.e., the distinction between Israel and the church). Since Christ is the final and fullest revelation of God, I now see that the Old Testament anticipated Christ and finds its interpretation and fulfillment in Christ.

In the New Testament—apart from well-debated text in Romans 11:25-27—there is not even a hint of a future restoration of the nation of Israel to the land.

Of the seventy four references to Abraham in the New Testament, not one clearly focuses on the “earthly” elements of the covenant. Even the acceptance of a mass conversion of Israelites at some future time does not demand a return to a former order of things.

Take, for example, the Apostle Paul’s discussion of the relationship of the law to saving faith, in Galatians 3.

He introduces Abraham as a paradigm of saving faith and of inclusion in the promises of God. In the course of his discussion, the apostle makes interpretive statements based on his understanding of the Genesis passages. These reflect on the Abrahamic covenant. These statements are as follows:

1) – “Those who believe are children of Abraham” (Gal. 3:7).

2) -“The Scripture foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, and announced the gospel in advance to Abraham: ’All nations will be blessed through you’” (Gal. 3:8).

3) - “Those who have faith are blessed along with Abraham” (Gal. 3:9).

4) – “He redeemed us in order that the blessing given to Abraham might come to the Gentiles through Jesus Christ” (Gal. 3:14).

5) – “The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. The Scripture does not say ‘and to seeds,’ meaning many people, but ‘and to your seed,’ meaning one person, who is Christ” (Gal. 3:16).

6) - “But the Scripture declares that the whole world is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe” (Gal. 3:22).

Paramount in these verses is the redemptive significance of the Abrahamic covenant as it finds its consummation in the person of Jesus Christ. Christ, as the quintessential seed of Abraham, is both the guarantor and inheritor of the promises of the covenant.

Relationship with Christ, established by emulating the faith of Abraham, guarantees one’s participation in the promises of the covenant. It is not the keeping of the law or physical descent from Abraham that constitutes one as a child of Abraham, but rather faith in Jesus Christ.

These verses sanction the redemptive nature of the Abrahamic covenant. They confirm that covenant as the unifying factor between Jews and Gentiles, and they substantiate the view that there is one people of God of all ages that share the covenants of Scripture which find their consummation in Christ.

Strikingly, Paul perceives redemption in Christ to be the dominant, though not exclusive, feature of the Abrahamic covenant. He finds the consummation of the covenant in Christ and participation in the covenant to be predicated on relationship to Christ. Though, admittedly,  I argue from silence here, the “material” nature of the promises to Abraham appears to be somewhat idealized in Christ. Though not necessarily removing those “material” elements of the Abrahamic covenant, Paul’s treatment certainly places them in a new light.

Consequently, due to the advent of Christ as the seed of Abraham, the New Testament sees a semi-realized fulfillment of the Abrahamic covenant in New Testament believers and the church and an ultimate eternal fulfillment in the New Heavens and Earth for all those who are “seed” of Abraham by faith.

In Christ we have our “landedness” as we are “blessed in the heavenly realms with every spiritual blessing in Christ,” (Eph. 1:3) and are assured that we have “an inheritance that can never perish, spoil or fade kept in heaven” (1 Pet. 1:3).

The New Testament texts that consider the question, “Who are the legitimate heirs of the Abrahamic Covenant?” unequivocally answer, “All of those who are in Christ Jesus.”

In reference to the unity of believing Jews and Gentiles, George N. H. Peters cogently concludes:

Both elect are the seed, the children of Abraham; both sets of branches are on the same stock, on the same root, on the same olive tree; both constitute the same Israel of God, the members of the same body, fellow-citizens of the same commonwealth; both are Jews “inwardly” (Romans 2:29), and of the true “circumcision” (Phil. 3:3), forming the same “peculiar people,” “holy nation,” and “royal priesthood”; both are interested in the same promises, covenants, and kingdom; both inherit and realize the same blessings at the same time (Peters 404).

In conclusion, may we all continue to “do theology” rooted in humility, exegesis, biblical theology, and community. Though I do not agree with many of Clark Pinnock’s theological conclusions, I do appreciate his delightful approach to the theological enterprise. He said,

I approach theology in a spirit of adventure, being always curious about what I may find. For me theology is like a rich feast, with many dishes to enjoy and delicacies to taste. It is like a centuries-old conversation that I am privileged to take part in, a conversation replete with innumerable voices to listen to…. More like a pilgrim than a settler, I tread the path of discovery and do my theology en route (quoted in Grenz 134).

Works Cited

Davis, John P. “A Critical Examination of the Use of the Abrahamic Covenant in Dispensationalism.” Master of Theology Thesis, Westminster Theological Seminary, 1990.
Grenz, Stanley J. Renewing the Center. Grand Rapids: Baker Academic, 2000.
Peters, George N. H. The Theocratic Kingdom. Vol. 1. Grand Rapids, Kregel Publications, 1952.
Ryrie, Charles Caldwell. Dispensationalism Today. Chicago: Moody Press, 1965.


TOPICS: Apologetics; General Discusssion
KEYWORDS: dispensationalism
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To: P-Marlowe

Why would a Messianic Christian have more understanding of the OT than an orthodox Christian? In fact, that particular world view would seem to cloud the truth rather than reveal it.


101 posted on 10/21/2009 5:55:04 PM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: Forest Keeper; xzins; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg
I have also seen the idea that OT animal sacrifices actually DID atone for sins, but only temporarily. That is why they had to be repeated over and over.

But the NT confidently asserts, “For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins” (Heb. 10:4) and “And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins” (Heb. 10:11).

So, it makes sense, based on what we are told in the book of Hebrews, that there must be a sacramental sense in which the blood of the sacrifice atoned for sin.

I think we have to believe that the ancient people understood the sacrifices in this way. Not that the animal itself could do anything, but by faith in the One who is the Redeemer, that real, eternal salvation was made possible.

After all, if Jesus could say to the Jews in His day, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad," why should it be difficult to think that the people in Moses' day (and beyond) were able to look past the animal and the blood and actually see Jesus Christ in the sacrifices?

102 posted on 10/21/2009 6:11:33 PM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; Buggman; blue-duncan; xzins
Why would a Messianic Christian have more understanding of the OT than an orthodox Christian?

I don't think I said that they would. I'd just like to get Buggman's take on this issue.

Define "Orthodox"

103 posted on 10/21/2009 6:20:39 PM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: topcat54; xzins; Forest Keeper; P-Marlowe
I'm inclined to agree that what was being represented is the sacramental union between the sign and the thing signified. The blood of animals atones for the sins of the people insofar as it points forward to the person and work of Jesus Christ. It must be appropriated by faith in order to be effectual. That is, faith in the God who is the Redeemer of Israel.

And that would reflect our understanding of the Lord's Supper, too...

"the sacramental union between the sign and the thing signified" which "points forward to the person and work of Jesus Christ" and "must be appropriated by faith in order to be effectual."

104 posted on 10/21/2009 6:24:53 PM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: P-Marlowe

You and me. 8~)


105 posted on 10/21/2009 6:25:20 PM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; xzins; blue-duncan; Buggman; Forest Keeper
I recognize that I am a heretic.

As they say, one man's heresy is another man's orthodoxy.

106 posted on 10/21/2009 6:30:13 PM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: xzins

“Animal sacrifice never accomplished atonement for sin.”

Animal sacrifice never accomplished the propitiation/expiation for sin. It did accomplish atonement, a covering for sin, by a ritualistic obedience, but it did not satisfy and placate God’s wrath towards sin.


107 posted on 10/21/2009 6:51:15 PM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; xzins; Buggman; Forest Keeper

“I recognize that I am a heretic”

Be careful with that. A self defining of heresy means you have measured yourself against someone’s list; their particular enumerated standards or creed. You might need an atonement of some sort.


108 posted on 10/21/2009 6:59:26 PM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: topcat54; xzins; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg
FK: I have also seen the idea that OT animal sacrifices actually DID atone for sins, but only temporarily. That is why they had to be repeated over and over.

But the NT confidently asserts, “For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins” (Heb. 10:4) and “And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins” (Heb. 10:11). So, it makes sense, based on what we are told in the book of Hebrews, that there must be a sacramental sense in which the blood of the sacrifice atoned for sin.

OK that's good, and thanks for the passages from Calvin. I'm trying to nail down the actual mechanics of what's happening here. From your #99:

"The blood of animals atones for the sins of the people insofar as it points forward to the person and work of Jesus Christ. It must be appropriated by faith in order to be effectual. That is, faith in the God who is the Redeemer of Israel."

OK, then would you say that "insofar as ..." also means "in a literal sense not at all"? If it's appropriate, let's relate it to water baptism. Would we say that water baptism saves (atones for) us insofar as it points to Christ on the cross, and that we must have faith for it to be effectual? That doesn't sound right to me. :) I'm trying to understand precisely what "sacramental sense" means.

109 posted on 10/21/2009 7:03:08 PM PDT by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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To: blue-duncan; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; xzins; Buggman; topcat54
Animal sacrifice never accomplished the propitiation/expiation for sin. It did accomplish atonement, a covering for sin, by a ritualistic obedience, but it did not satisfy and placate God’s wrath towards sin.

Do you mean sin in general or the instant sin? Assuming the latter, then what is the significance of the animal sacrifice covering/atonement? Are there two completely different uses of "atonement", yours here and that of Christ in particular? It looks like you're saying that there can be actual and full atonement vis-a-vis a given sin without propitiation. I don't understand what the point would be.

110 posted on 10/21/2009 7:32:52 PM PDT by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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To: blue-duncan; xzins
Animal sacrifice never accomplished the propitiation/expiation for sin. It did accomplish atonement, a covering for sin, by a ritualistic obedience, but it did not satisfy and placate God’s wrath towards sin.

I think you are making an artificial distinction.

The word atonement was invented in the sixteenth century by William Tyndale who recognized that there was not a direct English translation of the biblical Hebraic concept. The word is composed of two parts "at" and "onement" in order to reflect the dual aspect of Christ's sacrifice: the remission of sin and reconciliation of man to God. Tyndale's concept overcome the limitations of the word "reconciliation" whilst incorporating aspects of propitiation and forgiveness.

In Christianity, Propitiation is a theology term denoting that by which God is rendered propitious, i.e., that 'satisfaction' or 'appeasement' by which it becomes consistent with His character and government to pardon and bless sinners....

(See What does ‘atonement’ mean?)

The Hebrew word sometimes translated as “atonement” in the OT, kaphar (or kippur) and applied to animals has the idea of both propitiation and expiation. In fact, the LXX translates kaphar with the Greekhilaskomai, or propitiation.
111 posted on 10/21/2009 8:20:07 PM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: topcat54

“I think you are making an artificial distinction.”

Really, then what is the difference between animal sacrifices and the sacrifice of Jesus?


112 posted on 10/22/2009 4:38:07 AM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: Forest Keeper; xzins; topcat54; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; blue-duncan
It's been a while since we had one of these. The short answer is in the form of a question: "Do you think the Old Testament lies and only the New Testament tells the truth?"

If the answer is yes, then you do Marcion proud and there's really no point in going any further.

If the answer is no, then you have to accept the fact that the blood of bulls, goats, and lambs really did provide atonement--that is, a covering over sin, as if someone spilled that blood over the page recording your sin.

What the book of Hebrews points out is that none of these sacrifices could bring someone to the goal of perfect, eternal standing before the Holy One. The daily sacrifices demonstrated their weakness in that they required the Yom Kippur sacrifice to atone for all of Israel. Since the Yom Kippur sacrifices were likewise repeated over and over again, this pointed to the need for a super-sacrifice that would not only atone for sin, but like the Azazel goat, actually remove it--and that sacrifice is the Messiah Yeshua (lit. in Hebrew, "Annointed Salvation").

Now when it comes to the Millennial sacrifices described in Ezekiel, why would we return to making them? Three points answer this question:

First, the Apostles, including Paul, continued in the Temple, corrupt as it was, which meant taking part in the sacrificial service. Indeed, Paul financed a total of fifteen animal sacrifices for four men plus himself to complete their Nazrite vows in Acts 21 (which I've discussed in detail here) and actually states in Acts 24:17 that it was for the purpose of not only delivering alms but making sacrifices that he had returned to Jerusalem. Clearly, the Apostles saw no conflict between belief in Messiah and making sacrifices.

The second is to point out the continued pattern: The Torah demonstrates that the daily sacrifices require the Yom Kippur sacrifice, and Hebrews points out that in the same way the Yom Kippur sacrifice requires the Messiah's. However, just as Israel did not cease to offer the daily sacrifices after the first Yom Kippur, there is no reason to suppose that the super-sacrifice of Messiah need bring the others to an end forever. Rather, Yeshua's sacrifice makes them full and effectual--without Him, the blood of the whole world would be to no avail.

And third, post-Crucifixion, the sacrifices continue to provide an illustration of the price of sin (the offerer literally slit the animal's throat himself so that its blood would be on his hands) and what Messiah did for us. In the same way, Passover serves us as a reminder of who the Holy One has twice redeemed us from slavery (once from Egypt, and once from the world) and as a way of passing on that knowledge to our children.

To Dr. Eckleburg:

Why would a Messianic Christian have more understanding of the OT than an orthodox Christian?

Maybe because we take the OT seriously, as opposed to those you consider "orthodox." To wit, from the article: "In the New Testament—apart from well-debated text in Romans 11:25-27—there is not even a hint of a future restoration of the nation of Israel to the land." O rly? Even if that were true--and it is not except in the tail-eating theology of preterism, since the Olivet Discourse and the Revelation both assume Israel restored to the Land--so what? Again, are you a Marcionian or a Christian?

Shalom.

113 posted on 10/22/2009 6:22:26 AM PDT by Buggman (HebrewRoot.com - Baruch haBa b'Shem ADONAI!)
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To: Buggman; Forest Keeper; xzins; topcat54; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; blue-duncan

Thanks for your input. As usual you have given us all a lot to think about.


114 posted on 10/22/2009 6:49:59 AM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: blue-duncan
Really, then what is the difference between animal sacrifices and the sacrifice of Jesus?

That was explained here, here, and here. The relationship is between the sign (animal sacrifice) and the thing signified (The blood of the Lamb of God, Jesus Christ). The difference is that one was a mere shadow of the other. Shadow and substance. Col. 2:16,17.

We no longer worship with the shadows.

115 posted on 10/22/2009 8:00:13 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg
Define "Orthodox"

Orthodoxy has often been defined by the Church in terms of what it isn’t as well as what it is.

Esp. when we talk about things like the nature of the Godhead or the Person and work of Jesus Christ, we must expose the negatives in order to define the positives.

I would also say, for example, that based on a plain reading of Galatians that any gentile who tried place himself under the Jewish ceremonial law would not be “orthodox”. As Paul tells his readers, those who practice such things are turning “to the weak and beggarly elements.” It is clearly a return to law-keeping which cannot save (Gal. 4:21).

In the new covenant, Paul identifies those who would encourage practices like circumcision for gentiles as “putting confidence in the flesh” (Phil. 3:3).

The Church, as she as correctly understood the teachings of the apostles, has never encouraged or sanctioned such retrograde behavior. Sadly, though, many Christians today are mesmerized by the cult-like attraction of the messianic movement. While the notion of “Jewish roots” sounds attractive, in many cases it is just an excuse for adopting quasi-rabbinic traditions of a post-apostolic age. It is really a rejection of Christ’s legitimate authority which He placed in His apostles and their disciples. It’s just a new restorationist movement with a Jewish twist. We’ve seen the same in groups like the Jehovah’s Witnesses and Mormons, both of which had a false view of the Godhead. Messianism has its own problems in this area.

116 posted on 10/22/2009 8:43:02 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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To: topcat54
How is what you said, ("The relationship is between the sign (animal sacrifice) and the thing signified (The blood of the Lamb of God, Jesus Christ). The difference is that one was a mere shadow of the other. Shadow and substance. Col. 2:16,17.") different from ("Animal sacrifice never accomplished the propitiation/expiation for sin. It did accomplish atonement, a covering for sin, by a ritualistic obedience, but it did not satisfy and placate God’s wrath towards sin")?
117 posted on 10/22/2009 8:56:39 AM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: topcat54; Buggman; Forest Keeper; xzins; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; blue-duncan
It is clearly a return to law-keeping which cannot save (Gal. 4:21).

It never could "save". That was the point.

But I see no problem whatsoever in a Christian observing Old Testament traditions provided that they are doing it out of a sense of calling or love or out of a purpose of obedience.

I had not realized until this thread that Paul continued to practice the Old Testament traditions while at the same time preaching that they were not necessary for salvation and that they were "required" of the gentiles.

The Jewish Law was never intended to bind Gentiles as the Gentiles were not chosen by God for that purpose. The ceremonial laws were instituted as a means for those who were given God's grace to show their love through obedience. David (who had his problems keeping the law and who was saved solely by grace) proclaimed how he loved the Law.

I see the same attitude in my Messianic brothers. They obey the law not because it provides them with an extra measure of Grace, but because they love God and it is a way for them to show obedience (if not to the LAW, but to the Law Giver).

I do separate myself from those who would proclaim that if you do not keep the Old Testament Laws, that you are somehow living in sin or being disobedient to the Gospel. Romans 14 makes it clear that we have freedom in Christ and that Christians are not to judge one another in manners of customs or food or holy days. I sense no condemnation from my good FRiend Buggman because of my penchant for Sunday worship and eating bacon, nor do I condemn him for his committment to Saturday worship and the eating of Matzo and Herring.

118 posted on 10/22/2009 9:14:10 AM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: topcat54; blue-duncan; xzins; Buggman
We no longer worship with the shadows.

I don't know about you, but my shadow follows me right through the church doors.

119 posted on 10/22/2009 9:18:08 AM PDT by P-Marlowe (LPFOKETT GAHCOEEP-w/o*)
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To: blue-duncan

Because I was not denying that animal sacrifices pictured propitiation/expiation/atonement, which seemed to be your claim, making, as it were, some distinction between atonement and propitiation/expiation wrt animals.

Animal sacrifice never accomplished atonement. That was, I believe, your position.

Do you believe that animal sacrifice was a picture of the perfect propitiation/expiation/atonement of Christ?


120 posted on 10/22/2009 9:45:18 AM PDT by topcat54 ("Don't whine to me. It's all Darby's fault.")
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