[MEGoody]

In one case, we have a ceremony performed in the name of known dead individual (dead and buried) whose name has been obtained despite explicit requests not to by one faith, conducted by the other faith in accordance to that other faith's institutional policies and procedures. In the other case, we have a prayer offered for an apparently mortally wounded, but possibly alive person, by an individual acting according to the immediate urgency of the moment.

What difference does it make to the individual to whom either is done?

[delacoert]

In post #56 you now ask: What difference does it make to the individual to whom either is done?

But in post #5 you first asked: Unless this priest made sure he was only giving last rights to Catholics, is what he did any different from what some Mormons did?

Have you abandoned the more general debate you began in post #5 while conceding nothing and changing your question?

I am willing to discuss your new question, but I am wondering if you are conceding that there are "any" differences.