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Is the Phrase "First Day of the Week" Properly Translated in the New Testament?
Author's website ^ | Unknown | Todd Derstine

Posted on 01/11/2008 10:59:47 AM PST by DouglasKC

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To: Diego1618

Read any source on Sol Invictus. It was initiated AFTER Christ, so that the pantheist cult of Rome could mimic Christianity.


21 posted on 01/12/2008 2:34:28 AM PST by dangus
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To: DouglasKC
By the way, I don't know if you use the bible program "E-Sword" or not, but I'm in the process of porting the Concordant Publishing Concern of the New Testament (the translation referred to multiple time in the article) over to an E-Sword Bible module. I'm about a third of the way done and if you need a copy let me know. It's not copyrighted if it's used for private use.

Thank you so much for your consideration. I have used E-Sword in the past.....but not recently. It sounds like you are in the middle of a great undertaking....and yes, I would like to know more about your endeavor.....and a possible copy.

Thank you again.

22 posted on 01/12/2008 2:01:03 PM PST by Diego1618
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To: dangus
so that the pantheist cult of Rome could mimic Christianity.

The Sun worshipers had been in and about Rome long before Christianity. Bacchus and Apollo come to mind....but, yes.... you are correct about "Sol Invictus". It was the final stage of Roman Sun worship.

[II Kings 17:24] And the king of Assyria brought men from Babylon, and from Cuthah, and from Ava, and from Hamath, and from Sepharvaim, and placed them in the cities of Samaria instead of the children of Israel: and they possessed Samaria, and dwelt in the cities thereof. Babylon is where Sun worship originated with Nimrod.

[Acts 8:9_11] But there was a certain man, called Simon, which beforetime in the same city used sorcery, and bewitched the people of Samaria, giving out that himself was some great one: To whom they all gave heed, from the least to the greatest, saying, This man is the great power of God. And to him they had regard, because that of long time he had bewitched them with sorceries. Simon, as a descendant of these Sun worshiping Babylonians.....brought his brand of "Sun" worship to Rome. By the time "Sol Invictus" appeared on the scene "Sun"day was already greatly revered as the Holy Day!

23 posted on 01/12/2008 2:30:05 PM PST by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618

... but the relevant point is that the Sabbath had been celebrated on Sunday for a century before Sol Invictus. Sun worship goes back probably to the very dawn of mankind, but Sunday was dedicated to sun worship only in 4th century.


24 posted on 01/12/2008 3:05:43 PM PST by dangus
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To: DouglasKC

There is no doubt that the Resurrection took place on the 7th day Sabbath or on a Saturday. In the following ancient Bibles, you will see solid proof.

On this webpage you will see a copy of the Peshitta written in Aramaic about 200 AD. You will have to have it translated, but research Mark 16:1,2. There are English versions of the Peshitta, but like the Bible, they are false or incorrect translations. You have to go back to the original Scriptures.

www.nazarene.net/aramaic/pmark.pdf

Here is another more antique and original Scripture written by Cipriano de Valera in 1602. It is one of the Bibles used in the writing of the King James. It is written in Spanish. If you read an English translation, it will probably be translated wrong. Read Matt. 28:1. It says Mary Magdalene, etc. came on “the first of the Sabbaths”. Also look at the Bible by Casiodoro de Reina 1569. It is also in Spanish and is the other Bible used in the writing of the King James and likewise was falsely translated to the King James.

Look at the Latin Vugata (Vulgate). It says “primam sabati” or translated “first of the Sabbaths”. You will not find “first day of the week” in any of the older Scriptures.

The original Greek says the same thing. It is there for anyone to see.

By the way, “the first of the Sabbaths” means the first 7th day Sabbath of the total of 7 Sabbaths during the 49 days or 7 weeks of the Omer count up to the 50th day of Pentecost (6 Sivan). Yeshua died on Wednesday, 14Nisan in 30AD at 3pm. Buried before sundown on that day thus being the 1st day in the ground. There are 3days and 3nights from that point until Saturday morning the 17th before sunrise when the women arrived. Yeshua said he would be buried for 3days and 3 nights like Jonah was in the stomach of the whale.

Blessings in your search for the TRUTH.


25 posted on 01/13/2008 7:56:42 AM PST by Harrymehome
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To: Harrymehome; DouglasKC
Yeshua died on Wednesday, 14Nisan in 30AD at 3pm. Buried before sundown on that day thus being the 1st day in the ground. There are 3days and 3nights from that point until Saturday morning the 17th before sunrise when the women arrived.

Wouldn't that chain of events have Him coming out of the tomb Sabbath afternoon.....late....right before sunset? Wednesday evening/Thursday daytime (day one); Thursday evening/Friday daytime (day two); Friday evening/Sabbath daytime (Day three).

Have not seen you in a while, Harry. How have you been?

26 posted on 01/14/2008 6:58:28 PM PST by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618; DouglasKC

I’ve been OK, thanks. Just trying to keep up with all the signs of the times. His buriel during daylight hours before sunset on Wednesday the 14th constitutes the 1st day. The nite of the 15th begins. That’s the first nite. Sun comes up on 15th. That begins the 2nd day. The 2nd nite begins on the 16th. Sun comes up making the 3rd day still on the 16th. Sunset and the 3rd nite begins on the 17th on a Saturday. They come to tomb before sunrise.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH.


27 posted on 01/14/2008 8:21:37 PM PST by Harrymehome
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To: Harrymehome
Not trying to quibble....but did you mean "on a Friday?"

Sunset and the 3rd nite begins on the 17th on a Saturday.

28 posted on 01/15/2008 7:56:06 AM PST by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618

A complete Biblical 24 hour day begins at sunset. The 14th is Wed., at sunset the 15th nite begins at 6PM and is Thursday, etc., the 16th is Friday, and the 17th is Saturday. They came about 12 hours after the Saturday Sabbath had begun. About 5 AM just before sunrise of the same date, the 17th.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH.


29 posted on 01/15/2008 5:44:01 PM PST by Harrymehome
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To: Harrymehome

In the article the translation of Mark 16:9 is incorrect. “First” cannot modify “Sabbath” in this verse because they are different genders (rules of Greek Grammer). Also, Sabbath here is Genetive, not nominative (which means that it is to be translated “of Sabbath”)

There is a word that is implied between them. That word could either be “day” : First [day] of Sabbath or it could be “hour”: First [hour] of Sabbath - which would be around 6am on Sabbath - which would fit the context of the sun rising when Jesus appears to Mary (after having risen prior).

This of course makes the sign of Jonah start Wednesday morning before Pilate and the multitudes. Now if you read Jonah’s story carefully, and check the imagery here used in other scriptures (such as what “waters” means, for example, in Psalm 69:1-4, or “pit,depths,earth”(Jonah2:6) with Psalm 88:6) a clearer picture emerges. Christ never said He would “be in the tomb” 3 days and 3 nights, He said “the heart of the earth” - which is a metaphor.

But anyway, a few scriptures to look at are:

Purification for Sin: Numbers 19 (special attn to vrs 19,22)
with
Hebrews 9,10
with
John 20:17

Ask yourself why Jesus instructs Mary not to touch Him when all through His ministry He is being touched and people are being healed. (The same Greek word for “touch” is used here)

...Then in the *evening (which starts the new day)He appears to the disciples and says “handle me”

Anyway, I have accepted the Wednesday Crucifixion and I find it both edifying and disturbing. Disturbing because of what I believe it indicates about the TIME we are living in, and why it has been hidden for so long. (Compare Rev 14:7 with Exodus 20:11)

God Bless, everyone...and...

Psalm 132:8 (KJV) (Be sure to look it up) :)


30 posted on 06/24/2008 5:52:42 AM PDT by Strav
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To: Strav
Correction #2: [quote](28:1a) Now it is the evening of the Sabbath (end of the 15th). CLNT [/quote] Matthew 28:1 uses the plural form of Sabbath: σαββατων, not the singular and it is also Genetive, which means it is possesive - "of sabbaths". οψε δε σαββατων "δε" is almost always used as a contrast word, to indicate a new subject - it is sometimes translated "and" and frequently translated "but". Also, it usually follows the first word of a sentence, but in English is the first word. Example: νυν δε ζητειτε John 8:40 But now you seek... "οψε" - means "late" or "eve". Usually it is used in reference to time for a single day. This preposition however refers to a plural noun - in this case: "Sabbaths". Literally translated: But late of Sabbaths... If "after" was meant, Matthew could have used "meta"(in accusative), as here: μετα δε το εγερθηναι Matt 26:32 "But after I am risen" or he could have used "διαγενομενου" Mark 16:1 ..which means to "go through or pass" (in this case, a single Sabbath) Matthew is giving an indication of the time frame(of Sabbaths that fell on different days): "But late of Sabbaths, as it began to draw on to one of the Sabbaths" I've used "draw on" here because it is the same word used in Luke 23:54 - επεφωσκεν "And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on."
31 posted on 07/29/2008 6:53:52 PM PDT by Strav
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To: Strav
Correction number 3:

The word "day" being supplied is not neccessarily a product of biased translation. It has to do with Greek Grammer. In this short explanation I am correcting both myself and the author of article.

It must be noted that "Sabbath" in plural or singular forms, be it genetive, nominative or whichever case, is a *NEUTER* noun.

Adjectives must match the genders of the nouns they modify. For instance:

Matt 26:17 leaves out the word "day" in "the first day of Unleavened Bread". It literally reads "first of Unleavened"

"Unleavened" is Genetive and it's gender is Neuter
"first" in this passage is feminine

Therefore the adjective "first" cannot modify the noun "Unleavened". There must be a word supplied, a feminine noun. That noun is "day" - in feminine.

In any case, we know that this addition is correct not only because of the rules of Greek Grammer, but also because Mark 14:12 *does* supply the word "day" after "first" in the same passage.

The word "one", as differentiated from "first" like other adjectives and nouns, can be either masculine, feminine or neuter.

Here are some examples of "one" in nueter:

Luke 5:3 "...one of the ships"
Matt 12:11 "...one sheep"
Matt 5:18 "...one jot"
Matt 5:29 "one of thy members"


In all the examples above the word for "one" is "εν" (with the double accent above it - that I cannot display here. The double accent is important else the word has a different meaning) - and the nouns in these passages are neuter.

If a person wanted to say "one of the Sabbaths" with no word being implied by grammatical rules, one would say:

"εν των σαββατων" (remembering double accent above the (εν))
not
"μια των σαββατων"
where "μια" is feminine, not nueter


HOWEVER:

The addition of the word "day" does NOT magically change Cardinal "1" (μια) into Ordinal "first"(πρωτη)

"μια των σαββατων" with the word "day" added to fit the gramatical requirement would literally read:
"one [day] of Sabbaths"...or how we would say in English:

One Sabbath day, or
A certain Sabbath day


How do we know this? Well, "day of Sabbaths", without the word "one" being attached to it is used elsewhere in a number of places to say "The Sabbath day". Here are some examples:

Luke 4:16 "ημερα των σαββατων" - "day of Sabbaths" Christ went into the Synagogue on the Sabbath day, as per His custom
Acts 13:14 "ημερα των σαββατων" - "day of Sabbaths" Paul and Barnabas go into the Synagogue on the "day of Sabbaths" - or "the Sabbath day"
Acts 16:13 "ημερα των σαββατων" - "day of Sabbaths" - they go out of the city by the river on the Sabbath day

If (μια) is added to any of the above passages the phrase becomes:

"One day of Sabbaths" or "One of the Sabbath days" or "A certain Sabbath day" which all mean the same thing.

If instead (πρωτη) "first" were used instead of (μια) "one" then the phrase becomes:

"First day of Sabbaths".

Fortunately, all four Gospel writers used the word "1" not "first" do describe the "when" of the women comming to the tomb, excepting Mark 16:9 - which I explained above.

The use of the word "certain" can be justified by other texts that use "1" (in whatever gender) to describe a certain thing or person. Examples:

Mark 12:42 "μια χηρα πτωχη" - "a certain poor widow" or literally "one poor widow"
Luke 5:12 "μια των πολεων" "a certain city" or literally "one of the cities"

And one that pertains specifically to this study:

Luke 5:17 "μια των ημερων" - "a certain day" or literally "one of the days"
32 posted on 08/28/2008 8:21:59 PM PDT by Strav
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To: Strav
If you translate μια των σαββατων into Hebrew you get אחת השבתות.
33 posted on 04/30/2009 8:36:48 PM PDT by Daniel Gregg
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To: Strav
Now it is the evening of the Sabbath (end of the 15th). CLNT [/quote] Matthew 28:1 uses the plural form of Sabbath: σαββατων, not the singular and it is also Genetive, which means it is possesive - "of sabbaths". οψε δε σαββατων "δε" is almost always used as a contrast word, to indicate a new subject - it is sometimes translated "and" and frequently translated "but". Also, it usually follows the first word of a sentence, but in English is the first word. Example: νυν δε ζητειτε John 8:40 But now you seek... "οψε" - means "late" or "eve". Usually it is used in reference to time for a single day. This preposition however refers to a plural noun - in this case: "Sabbaths". Literally translated: But late of Sabbaths...

I think Matthew was referring to the "Later" of the two Sabbaths that appeared that week. The first, The Sabbath of Unleavened on Wednesday...and the second, the weekly Sabbath that is the subject of his sentence: The Greek word "OYE" is usually translated "after" but it primarily means "late" with reference to time.....as you say. It also can be used to denote "Eve"....depending on the context. "oye" de sabbatwn th epifwskoush eiV mian sabbatwn hlqen maria h magdalhnh kai h allh maria qewrhsai ton tafon

A good translation would be "On the later of the Sabbaths at the dawn to the first of the Sabbaths came Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary to see the tomb." [Matthew 28:1]

Matthew specifically relates that it is the latter of the two Sabbaths occurring that week....and one was known as "The first of the Sabbaths" since it was the first special Sabbath (SABBATWN) between Passover and Pentecost.

34 posted on 05/01/2009 2:43:50 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: vladimir998
John Lightfoot

It is interesting Vald that the proponents of this thread completely ignored the specific documentation of the Jewish description of the days of the week in favor to their repeated - non supported drumbeat. Yet they want people to believe that some how all greek translators are mesmerized into a false translation scheme without real support from other sources.

35 posted on 05/01/2009 2:50:20 PM PDT by Godzilla (TEA: Taxed Enough Already)
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar
The Pharisees offered it on the second day of Unleavened bread. The Sadducees offered it on the day after the Sabbath during Passover week. The Biblical day was to be on the day after the Sabbath of the week in which the first harvest was made.

The thing that I always remembered about this dispute was the fact that Our Lord Himself said to follow the Pharisees as what they said was true....just don't DO what they do: [Matthew 23:1-3] Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples, Saying The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

He called them hypocrites a number of times.

Well, the standard belief is that the “sabbath” refers to the first day of the feast of first fruits which always comes on a SUNDAY.

This is indeed the day that most of the church feels is the "Day of First Fruits"....Sunday. I, however have always felt that the day after the High Sabbath [John 19:31] of Unleavened Bread would be the day that is referred to in [Leviticus 23:15]. If the 16th of Nisan is indeed the date, then it would float on a different day of the week from year to year.

36 posted on 05/01/2009 4:10:55 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618

***This is indeed the day that most of the church feels is the “Day of First Fruits”....Sunday. ***

The biblical ordained feast of the Firstfruits does not float. That was later added by johny come latelys to give those living away from the Holy Land a firm calender day for Passover and first fruit date.

I will stick with the Levitical account.

During the week of the first harvest...

Lev 23:11 And he shall wave the sheaf before the LORD, to be accepted for you: on the morrow AFTER THE SABBATH the priest shall wave it.


37 posted on 05/01/2009 4:37:42 PM PDT by Ruy Dias de Bivar (14. Guns only have two enemies: rust and politicians.)
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar
If you understand this....... The Pharsees offered it on the second day of Unleavened bread. (the 16th that floated) The Sadducees offered it on the day after the (weekly) Sabbath during Passover week. (same day every year) The Biblical day was to be on the day after the Sabbath of the week in which the first harvest was made.

then how do you reconcile this....given that your position aligns with that of the Sadducees?

[Matthew 23:1-3] Then spake Jesus to the multitude, and to his disciples, Saying The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat: All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.

38 posted on 05/02/2009 8:01:19 AM PDT by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618

***then how do you reconcile this....given that your position aligns with that of the Sadducees?

[Matthew 23:1-3]...***

Simple. Christ was Lord of the Sabbath. He knew that the Pharisees had the legal authority to change laws so told the people to respect the office but not the persons.

Besides Christ knew the rule of the pharisees was about to come to an end.

Mat 23:36 Verily I say unto you, All these things shall come upon this generation.

The onerous laws were the ones Christ was referring to.

Mat 12:1 At that time Jesus went on the sabbath day through the corn; and his disciples were an hungred, and began to pluck the ears of corn, and to eat.

Mat 12:2 But when the Pharisees saw [it], they said unto him, Behold, thy disciples do that which is not lawful to do upon the sabbath day.

They may have been forced to keep a Pharasee feast of first fruits but knew when the REAL one was. Then there was still the Sadusees and their weekend feast of firstfruits, and what is to have kept a farmer from bringing in his first crops at the proper Levitical time? the priests in the Temple could have easily done all three forms of the firstfruits.

I will stay with the Levitical dates for the Feast of Firstfruits.

Luk 24:21 But we trusted that it had been he which should have redeemed Israel: and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done.

This day was a SUNDAY as the day before was the weekly Sabbath.


39 posted on 05/02/2009 7:37:08 PM PDT by Ruy Dias de Bivar (14. Guns only have two enemies: rust and politicians.)
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar
I will stay with the Levitical dates for the Feast of Firstfruits.

I'm sorry....you are misinterpreting those "Levitical Dates".

[Leviticus 23:5-6] In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.

Passover, the 14th; First Sabbath, the 15th; The weekly Sabbath was last mentioned in verse 3.

[Leviticus 23:7-8] In the first day ye shall have an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein. But ye shall offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD seven days: in the seventh day is an holy convocation: ye shall do no servile work therein.

The First Day of Unleavened Bread is here identified as a Sabbath day. It is further identified in the New Testament by John in [19:31] The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

And, of course we know that it is the 15th because John earlier tells us in [19:14].....And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King. This identifies the day as the 14th. Tomorrow will be the 15th and according to John, a High Sabbath.

[Leviticus 23:9-11] And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, When ye be come into the land which I give unto you, and shall reap the harvest thereof, then ye shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest unto the priest. And he shall wave the sheaf before the LORD, to be accepted for you: on the morrow after the sabbath the priest shall wave it.

No one can argue the point that the immediate and extremely plain context is the First Sabbath of Unleavened Bread....the 15th of Abib. In context and without pretext then.......verses 8-11 flow out of those texts and do not jump to any mention of the weekly Sabbath!

40 posted on 05/02/2009 8:53:16 PM PDT by Diego1618
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