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To: Cap'n Crunch

***Read a little further in Acts 16... like through 33. ''he and his whole household were baptised.'' ***

Yet Paul makes it clear he was not sent to baptize even though he did.

1Cr 1:17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.

Also, we have the household of Cornelius.. who received the Holy Spirit before he was baptized.

Act 10:43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.


Act 10:44 ¶ While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.


Act 10:45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Peter then asks those who came with him if any of them could forbid them being baptized because he had no direction from God in this matter.


So, can an unsaved man have the Holy Spirit of God ?


112 posted on 12/30/2006 9:16:10 AM PST by Ruy Dias de Bivar (When someone burns a cross on your lawn the best firehose is an AK-47.)
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar; Cap'n Crunch

"Yet Paul makes it clear he was not sent to baptize even though he did."

Here's what Tertullian says on this:

"But they roll back an objection from that apostle himself, in that he said, 'For Christ sent me not to baptize;' as if by this argument baptism were done away! For if so, why did he baptize Gaius, and Crispus, and the house of Stephanas? However, even if Christ had not sent him to baptize, yet He had given other apostles the precept to baptize. But these words were written to the Corinthians in regard of the circumstances of that particular time; seeing that schisms and dissensions were agitated among them, while one attributes everything to Paul, another to Apollos. For which reason the 'peacemaking' apostle, for fear he should seem to claim all gifts for himself, says that he had been sent 'not to baptize, but to preach.' For preaching is the prior thing, baptizing the posterior. Therefore the preaching came first: but I think baptizing withal was lawful to him to whom preaching was."

"So, can an unsaved man have the Holy Spirit of God ?"

This is a trick question, right? It all depends on what your definition of "saved" is. If its the innovative Protestant idea, I wouldn't know, but I tend to doubt it. If its the Eastern or Western theology of The Church you are talking about, the answer is clearly and absolutely yes.


113 posted on 12/30/2006 9:28:23 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar

Man has always tried to find a way to get to heaven on their own. It has always been about God and what he has done but man will have none of it. Instead of having faith in what the Lord Jesus Christ did for us on the cross once and for all, they have to find ways of saving themselves. I don't care if its walking an aisle,being baptized,confessing sins or standing on your head it won't please God. When you believe the cross paid it all, you are covered in Christ's righteousness. Works for salvation is in all churches. The only true church is an invisible body of people who put their faith only in what Jesus did on the cross. Anything else is just trying to please man because it is not pleasing God. Every time you do something thinking it will lead you to salvation, you are saying that the Creator of the Universe, who came down to this evil world as an innocent man to die on a cross for your sins was a horrible mistake and he did it for nothing.


118 posted on 12/30/2006 9:57:41 AM PST by faithplusnothing1
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To: Ruy Dias de Bivar

Those you mention were still baptised. They were spoken to, believed and were baptised.


126 posted on 12/30/2006 11:01:11 AM PST by Cap'n Crunch (Rush Limbaugh, the Winston Churchill of our time)
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